Nursing Elites

1. After receiving the third dose of a new oral anticoagulant prescription, which action should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding
• B. Provide a PRN NSAID for gum discomfort
• C. Review the most recent coagulation lab values
• D. Complete a medication variance report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reviewing the most recent coagulation lab values is crucial after receiving multiple doses of a new oral anticoagulant to ensure the patient is within the desired therapeutic range and to prevent adverse events related to over or under-anticoagulation. It is essential to monitor these values closely to adjust the dosage if needed. Notifying the healthcare provider of any concerning findings is important, but it may not be the immediate priority after receiving the third dose. Providing a PRN NSAID for gum discomfort is not typically indicated with oral anticoagulant therapy, as it may increase the risk of bleeding. Completing a medication variance report is more relevant in cases of medication errors or discrepancies, which may not apply in this scenario.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect because it stimulates increased red blood cell production. This can result in elevated blood pressure levels, requiring careful monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications. Choice B, hypotension, is incorrect because epoetin alfa is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension. Choice C, hyperglycemia, and Choice D, tachycardia, are also incorrect as they are not commonly associated with the use of epoetin alfa.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia as a potential side effect. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, hence monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications related to hypokalemia.

4. While a client is receiving the medication haloperidol, which client data would indicate to the practical nurse that the medication is therapeutic?

• A. The client has maintained consistent weight loss of 2 pounds per week.
• B. The client has demonstrated a decrease in paranoid behaviors.
• C. The client's blood pressure has remained within normal limits.
• D. The client's fasting blood glucose has remained below 120 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is taking haloperidol, a therapeutic response involves a decrease in symptoms such as paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, and emotional excitement. These improvements indicate that the medication is effectively managing the client's condition. Monitoring for a reduction in paranoid behaviors helps the practical nurse assess the medication's effectiveness in addressing the client's psychiatric symptoms.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed cinacalcet. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Cinacalcet is a medication that can lower calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for signs of low calcium levels such as muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and abnormal heart rhythms is crucial to prevent complications in clients with chronic kidney disease.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Hypercalcemia is the opposite effect of cinacalcet; C) Hyperkalemia and D) Hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with cinacalcet use.

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