Nursing Elites

1. During a community health fair, a nurse is providing education on the effects of smoking. What is the most important information to include?

• A. Smoking can lead to cosmetic issues like tooth staining.
• B. Smoking is a leading cause of preventable death worldwide.
• C. Smoking temporarily elevates mood and alertness.
• D. Smoking is an expensive habit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Smoking is a leading cause of preventable death worldwide.' This information is crucial as it highlights the severe health risks associated with smoking, emphasizing the importance of cessation for overall health. Choice A is incorrect because cosmetic issues like tooth staining are not as significant as the life-threatening consequences of smoking. Choice C is incorrect because although smoking may temporarily elevate mood and alertness due to nicotine, this does not outweigh the serious health implications. Choice D is incorrect as while smoking is indeed an expensive habit, the focus should be on the health-related consequences to stress the urgency of quitting.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Bilateral leg swelling.
• B. Sudden onset of chest pain.
• C. Gradual onset of dyspnea.
• D. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer bronchodilator therapy as prescribed.
• B. Inhale the medication slowly while pressing down on the inhaler.
• C. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• D. Increase the oxygen flow rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing by maximizing chest expansion and allowing for better airflow. While administering bronchodilator therapy is important, positioning the client for improved breathing takes priority. Inhaling the medication slowly and pressing down on the inhaler is a correct technique for inhaler use but not the priority intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be needed, but adjusting the client's position to a high-Fowler's position is the priority to address the shortness of breath in COPD.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

• A. Elevated AST and ALT
• B. Decreased albumin level
• C. Elevated bilirubin level
• D. Prolonged PT/INR

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.

5. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

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