Nursing Elites

1. 4 hours after administration of 20U of regular insulin, the client becomes shaky and diaphoretic. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to eat crackers and milk
• B. Administer a PRN dose of 10U of regular insulin
• C. Give the client crackers and milk
• D. Record the client's reaction in the diabetic flow sheet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client becomes shaky and diaphoretic after insulin administration, indicating hypoglycemia, is to provide the client with carbohydrates like crackers and milk. Carbohydrates help raise blood glucose levels quickly. Encouraging the client to eat crackers and milk (Choice A) is the appropriate immediate action to address the hypoglycemia. Administering more insulin (Choice B) would worsen hypoglycemia, and recording the reaction (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to treat the hypoglycemia.

2. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?

• A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
• B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
• D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which clinical finding is characteristic of this condition?

• A. Pursed-lip breathing
• B. Hyperresonance on percussion
• C. Bradycardia
• D. High-pitched inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a characteristic finding in clients with COPD. It helps keep the airways open during exhalation, acting as a compensatory mechanism to prevent airway collapse, which is common in COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typically found in conditions like emphysema, which is a component of COPD but not characteristic of the overall disease. Bradycardia is not typical in COPD; instead, clients often exhibit tachycardia due to chronic hypoxemia. High-pitched inspiratory crackles are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, not COPD.

4. What are the final factors that contribute to blood pressure? (Select all that apply)

• A. Heart rate
• B. Stroke volume
• C. Peripheral resistance
• D. Neuroendocrine hormones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Neuroendocrine hormones play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by influencing factors like fluid balance, blood volume, and vessel constriction. While heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are important factors affecting blood pressure, the final parameters that directly produce blood pressure are influenced by neuroendocrine hormones. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are involved in the regulation of blood pressure but are not the final parameters that directly produce it.

5. A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

• A. It helps reduce the production of intestinal gases.
• B. It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.
• C. It prevents the risk of aspiration during the procedure.
• D. It is a standard procedure for all surgical interventions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

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