HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?
- A. Slight increase in blood pressure
- B. Elevated temperature and chills
- C. Mild nausea
- D. Slight headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.
2. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the nurse observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Loosen the dressing of the fistula
- B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
- C. Document that the fistula is intact
- D. Apply gentle pressure over the site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document that the fistula is intact. The palpable buzzing sensation (known as a thrill) over the AV fistula indicates proper functioning. It is essential for the nurse to document this finding to ensure ongoing monitoring of the fistula's status. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because there is no indication to loosen the dressing. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not associated with the palpable buzzing sensation of a thrill. Choice D is incorrect as applying pressure over the site is not necessary for this situation.
3. After adding feeding solution to a client's tube feeding system as seen in the picture, what action should the PN take next?
- A. Remove the air from the solution bag
- B. Obtain a piston syringe and irrigation set
- C. Record the solution added as fluid intake
- D. Calculate the rate of flow of the solution
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After adding feeding solution, obtaining a piston syringe and irrigation set is necessary to flush the feeding tube and ensure patency before starting the feeding. This helps prevent blockages and ensures proper delivery of the nutritional solution. Option A is incorrect because removing air from the solution bag is not the immediate next step after adding the feeding solution. Option C is incorrect as recording the solution added as fluid intake is important but not the immediate next step. Option D is incorrect as calculating the rate of flow of the solution is not the next step after adding the feeding solution.
4. Which of the following best describes the role of insulin in the body?
- A. Insulin helps break down glucose into energy for the body
- B. Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells
- C. Insulin converts excess glucose into fat for storage
- D. Insulin increases the breakdown of protein into amino acids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy production. Choice A is incorrect because insulin doesn't break down glucose but rather helps cells take up glucose. Choice C is incorrect as insulin does not directly convert glucose into fat; excess glucose is stored as fat by other processes. Choice D is incorrect as insulin does not increase the breakdown of protein into amino acids; its primary role is in glucose metabolism.
5. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?
- A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
- B. Serum Calcium
- C. Serum Creatinine
- D. WBC
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.
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