Nursing Elites

1. By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?

• A. Reassess the client to determine the reasons for inadequate pain relief.
• B. Wait to see whether the pain lessens during the next 24 hours.
• C. Change the plan of care to provide different pain relief interventions.
• D. Teach the client about the plan of care for managing pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Reassessing the client is crucial to identify the reasons for inadequate pain relief. This action allows the nurse to gather more information, evaluate the current pain management interventions, and make necessary adjustments to the care plan. Waiting for the pain to lessen without taking action delays appropriate pain management. Changing the plan of care without reassessment may lead to ineffective interventions. Teaching the client about the plan of care should be based on a reassessment of the current pain relief status to ensure tailored and effective pain management strategies.

2. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

3. A client returning from the surgical suite following a vaginal hysterectomy is awake and asking for something to drink. Her post-op diet prescription reads: 'clear liquids, advance diet as tolerated.' Which of the following is appropriate for the nurse to tell the patient?

• A. ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.''
• B. ''You need to wait until the surgeon evaluates your condition.''
• C. ''You can have clear liquids, but let me check with the surgeon first.''
• D. ''It is best to start with small sips of clear liquids and observe how you feel.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: ''I am going to listen to your abdomen.'' Listening to the abdomen helps assess bowel sounds and ensure that the client’s gastrointestinal system is ready for oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because the client does not necessarily need to wait for the surgeon to evaluate before starting with clear liquids. Choice C is incorrect because unless there are specific contraindications, clear liquids are usually allowed after surgery. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the immediate assessment needed before initiating oral intake post-operatively.

4. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?

• A. The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum.
• B. In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.
• C. Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg.
• D. This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A fracture near the epiphysis can result in retarded bone growth, so this should be communicated to the parents.

5. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?

• A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
• B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
• C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
• D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.

Similar Questions