a client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and pyloroplasty the nurse explains that the purpose of this surgery is to
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Questions

1. A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and pyloroplasty. The nurse explains that the purpose of this surgery is to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Reduce acid secretion." Vagotomy is performed to reduce acid secretion by cutting the vagus nerve, which stimulates acid production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A vagotomy does not increase acid secretion, promote gastric emptying, or remove the ulcerated area. It specifically aims to decrease acid production to help in the healing of peptic ulcers.

2. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

3. Following-up Mrs. Luy, G5P4, you notice her eldest son is underweight and her youngest daughter looks thin and pale. Mrs. Luy's present pregnancy would mean another additional member of the family. This can be considered as:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'health threat.' The new pregnancy poses a health threat due to the potential strain on resources and the existing issues with the children, such as underweight and being pale. Choice A is incorrect as it does not fully capture the potential risks associated with the new pregnancy. Choice B is also incorrect as it includes 'health deficit,' which is not explicitly mentioned in the scenario. Choice D, 'foreseeable crisis,' is not the most fitting description of the situation presented.

4. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.

5. What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.

Similar Questions

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The delivery of basic health services was decentralized to the local government units. The legal basis for this is embodied in:
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