Nursing Elites

1. Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the nurse thinks might have touched her hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the nurse's waist level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.

2. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

• A. Assist the client with a hot bath
• B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
• C. Face the client directly when speaking
• D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.

3. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that the nurse should monitor for in patients?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of opioid analgesics due to the slowing of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased peristalsis and increased water absorption, resulting in constipation. Monitoring for constipation is crucial to prevent discomfort or complications like bowel obstruction. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Hypertension (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not typically associated with opioid use.

4. At the first dressing change, the PN tells the client that her mastectomy incision is healing well, but the client refuses to look at the incision and refuses to talk about it. Which response by the PN to the client's silence is best?

• A. You will feel better when you see that the incision is not as bad as you may think.
• B. It's OK if you don't want to look or talk about the mastectomy. I will be available when you're ready.
• C. Part of recovery is accepting your new body image, and you will need to look at your incision.
• D. Would you like me to call another nurse to be here while I show you the wound?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's feelings and providing emotional support without pressuring them to look at the incision is important. Choice B is the best response as it respects the client's emotional readiness to confront their body image changes. The client's autonomy and emotional needs are prioritized in this response. Choice A may invalidate the client's feelings by assuming the incision is not as bad as they think, potentially dismissing their emotions. Choice C is insensitive as it imposes a particular view of recovery on the client, disregarding their current emotional state. Choice D may escalate the situation by suggesting the need for another nurse, which could make the client feel uncomfortable and pressured.

5. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?

• A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
• B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
• C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
• D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.

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