Nursing Elites

1. Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the nurse thinks might have touched her hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the nurse's waist level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.

2. The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?

• A. Obtain further data about the client's activity intolerance to position changes
• B. Advise the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath
• C. Direct the UAP to obtain vital signs and a pulse oximetry reading
• D. Notify the healthcare provider about the client's episode of SOB

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.

3. Which of the following is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?

• A. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine
• B. Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees
• C. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
• D. Changing the ventilator circuit daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a critical step in preventing ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) because it helps reduce the risk of aspiration, which is a significant factor in the development of VAP. Elevating the head of the bed enhances pulmonary hygiene, decreases the risk of microaspiration, and promotes better lung function. Performing oral care with chlorhexidine is essential for oral hygiene but is not specifically aimed at preventing VAP. Administering prophylactic antibiotics without a clear indication can lead to antibiotic resistance and is not a recommended routine practice to prevent VAP. Changing the ventilator circuit daily is essential for infection control but is not the most critical step in preventing VAP.

4. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?

• A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
• B. Reduce intake of red meats
• C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
• D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.

5. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate a complication of enteral tube feeding?

• A. Abdominal distension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Decreased bowel sounds
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abdominal distension in a patient receiving enteral tube feeding may indicate a complication such as intolerance to feeding, delayed gastric emptying, or obstruction. Abdominal distension is a common sign of gastrointestinal issues related to enteral tube feeding. Weight gain is typically an expected outcome if the patient is receiving adequate nutrition. Decreased bowel sounds may indicate decreased motility but are not specific to enteral tube feeding complications. Diarrhea can occur due to various reasons, including infections, medications, or dietary changes, but it is not the most likely indication of a complication in enteral tube feeding.

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