Nursing Elites

1. Based on the principle of asepsis, which situation should the nurse consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the nurse thinks might have touched her hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the nurse's waist level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because an open sterile Foley catheter kit set up at waist level is considered sterile if it has not been contaminated. Choice A is incorrect because the one-inch border around a sterile field is considered non-sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a sterile glove that might have touched the nurse's hair is likely contaminated. Choice C is incorrect because a wrapped, unopened sterile gauze pad placed on a damp tabletop may have become contaminated.

2. What information should the PN collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?

• A. Name of the funeral home to contact
• B. Client's wishes regarding organ donation
• C. Contact information for the client's next of kin
• D. Health care proxy information

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation is crucial as it aligns with end-of-life care preferences and ensures that the client's decisions are respected. While obtaining the name of a funeral home (Choice A) may be necessary, it is not typically part of the initial admission assessment. Contact information for the client's next of kin (Choice C) is important for communication but may not be directly related to the client's immediate end-of-life wishes. Health care proxy information (Choice D) is vital for decision-making if the client becomes incapacitated but may not be the primary focus during the initial admission assessment.

3. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

4. During a fire incident in a long-term care facility's kitchen, which task is most crucial for the PN to perform instead of delegating to UAP?

• A. Close the doors to all residents' rooms
• B. Offer comfort and reassurance to each resident
• C. Identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident
• D. Provide blankets to each resident for use during evacuation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a fire emergency, the most critical task for the PN is to identify the method for transporting and evacuating each resident. This task ensures a safe and organized evacuation plan, which is essential for everyone's safety. Delegating this responsibility to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) may lead to errors or delays in the evacuation process. Closing doors to residents' rooms (Choice A) can help contain the fire but is not as urgent as planning the evacuation. While offering comfort and reassurance (Choice B) is important, it should not take precedence over ensuring a safe evacuation. Providing blankets (Choice D) is helpful but does not directly address the primary concern of safely evacuating residents.

5. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

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