HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
- A. To transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
- B. To protect the body from infections
- C. To help in blood clotting
- D. To regulate body temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.
2. How should a healthcare provider respond to a parent concerned about their child's sleep pattern?
- A. Recommend a sleep study
- B. Suggest increasing daytime naps
- C. Provide education on sleep hygiene
- D. Advise on medication use
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a parent expresses concerns about their child's sleep pattern, providing education on sleep hygiene is a beneficial response. Teaching parents about establishing a consistent sleep routine, creating a conducive sleep environment, and promoting healthy sleep habits can help address the child's sleep issues. This empowers the parent to make positive changes that can improve the child's sleep patterns. Recommending a sleep study (Choice A) may be premature and unnecessary without first addressing basic sleep hygiene. Suggesting increasing daytime naps (Choice B) may not always be appropriate and could further disrupt the child's nighttime sleep. Advising on medication use (Choice D) should be considered only after other non-pharmacological approaches have been tried and if deemed necessary by a healthcare provider.
3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?
- A. Urinary incontinence
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.
4. A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?
- A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
- B. Potassium hydroxide prep
- C. Wound culture
- D. Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.
5. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
- A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
- B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
- C. A notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner
- D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, when a client arrives unconscious, priority should be given to a notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner. Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person's healthcare wishes and decision-making preferences in advance. These directives guide healthcare providers in delivering care according to the client's preferences when the client is unable to communicate. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) are important but do not provide specific care instructions. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) may not reflect the client's wishes. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are valuable but do not address the individualized care preferences of the client.