HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. The PN is caring for a laboring client whose last sterile vaginal examination revealed the cervix was 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part was at 0 station. An hour later, the client tells the PN that she wants to go to the bathroom. Which action is most important for the PN to implement?
- A. Review the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern
- B. Check the perineum for an increase in bloody show
- C. Request a nurse to check the client's cervical dilation
- D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The sudden urge to use the bathroom may indicate that labor is progressing quickly. Checking the cervical dilation will help determine if the client is in the transition phase of labor and if it is appropriate to allow her to get up. Reviewing the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern (Choice A) is important but not the most immediate action in this scenario. Checking the perineum for an increase in bloody show (Choice B) is relevant but not as crucial as assessing cervical dilation. Palpating the client's bladder for distention (Choice D) is not the priority when the client wants to go to the bathroom during labor.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?
- A. Furosemide (Lasix)
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Albuterol (Proventil)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has MRSA. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of teaching?
- A. I will place the client in a private room
- B. I will tell the client’s visitors to wear a mask when they are within 3 feet of the client
- C. I will remove my gown after leaving the client’s room
- D. I will wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will place the client in a private room.' Placing the client in a private room helps prevent the spread of MRSA, a contact precaution. Choice B is incorrect because visitors should be following standard precautions for MRSA, not just wearing a mask within a specific distance. Choice C is incorrect as the gown should be removed before exiting the client's room to prevent the spread of MRSA. Choice D is incorrect as an N95 respirator mask is not typically required for the care of a client with MRSA; standard precautions are usually sufficient.
4. When designing a home health care program for disabled children, which factor should be considered when assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies?
- A. greater access to any healthcare provider
- B. allowance for early discharge
- C. concern for the quality of care
- D. approval by the network healthcare provider
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies, approval by the network healthcare provider is crucial. This approval ensures that the services provided are within the approved network, allowing for reimbursement. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the reimbursement process by private insurance companies. While greater access to any healthcare provider, allowance for early discharge, and concern for the quality of care are important considerations when designing a home health care program, they do not specifically impact the reimbursement process from private insurance companies.
5. When caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), why does the nurse elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees?
- A. To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
- B. To promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration
- C. To promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
- D. To decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is done to reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, aiding in lung expansion and oxygenation. This position helps improve respiratory mechanics by allowing the diaphragm to move more effectively. Choice B is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed does not directly promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscles of respiration. Choice C is incorrect because although elevating the head of the bed can assist with airway clearance, its primary purpose in ARDS is to decrease pressure on the diaphragm. Choice D is incorrect because reducing pressure on the medullary center is not the main goal of elevating the head of the bed; the focus is on enhancing lung function and oxygen exchange.