Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse monitor for during the IV infusion of vasopressin (Pitressin) in a client with bleeding esophageal varices?

• A. Vasodilatation of the extremities
• B. Chest pain and dysrhythmia
• C. Hypotension and tachycardia
• D. Decreasing GI cramping and nausea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the IV infusion of vasopressin in a client with bleeding esophageal varices, the nurse should monitor for chest pain and dysrhythmia. Vasopressin is a vasoconstrictor that can cause cardiovascular effects, including chest pain and dysrhythmias. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as vasopressin is not expected to cause vasodilatation of the extremities, hypotension, tachycardia, or improvements in GI symptoms such as cramping and nausea.

2. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

3. The public health nurse received funding to initiate a primary prevention program in the community. Which program best fits the nurse’s proposal?

• A. Case management and screening for clients with HIV.
• B. Regional relocation center for earthquake victims.
• C. Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women.
• D. Lead screening for children in low-income housing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women. This option aligns with primary prevention by preventing deficiencies before they occur, which is a key aspect of primary prevention. Providing vitamin supplements to high-risk pregnant women can help prevent birth defects and complications. Choices A, B, and D do not align with primary prevention strategies. Case management and screening for clients with HIV (Choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection and management. A regional relocation center for earthquake victims (Choice B) is focused on addressing the aftermath of a disaster rather than preventing it. Lead screening for children in low-income housing (Choice D) is more about early detection and intervention rather than primary prevention.

4. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
• B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
• C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
• D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.

5. Which laboratory finding should the nurse expect to see in a child with acute rheumatic fever?

• A. Thrombocytopenia
• B. Polycythemia
• C. Decreased ESR
• D. Positive ASO titer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive ASO titer. A positive ASO titer indicates recent streptococcal infection, which is associated with acute rheumatic fever. Thrombocytopenia (choice A) is not a typical laboratory finding in acute rheumatic fever. Polycythemia (choice B) refers to an increased red blood cell count, which is not typically seen in acute rheumatic fever. Decreased ESR (choice C) is not a common laboratory finding in acute rheumatic fever; in fact, ESR is often elevated in inflammatory conditions like rheumatic fever.

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