HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank
1. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?
- A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
- B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
- C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
- D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.
2. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, “I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home”. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
- B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
- C. Let me contact your healthcare provider to discuss the possibility of receiving IV heparin therapy at home
- D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Heparin prevents further clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely.' Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents further clot formation, but it does not quickly dissolve existing clots. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the purpose of heparin and the necessity for close monitoring of bleeding risks. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the misunderstanding about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is incorrect as home administration of IV heparin therapy requires careful consideration and should not be suggested without a thorough assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the client's misconception about heparin's role in dissolving clots and instead focuses on the client's desire to leave the hospital.
3. A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client’s urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Obtain capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours
- B. Measure oral secretions suctioned during the last 4 hours
- C. Evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values
- D. Obtain blood pressure and assess for dependent edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.
4. Which client’s vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?
- A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
- B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
- C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
- D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.
5. After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?
- A. Determine serum glucose levels
- B. Withhold potassium additives to IV fluids
- C. Give IV corticosteroid replacement
- D. Prepare to initiate IV vasopressors
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.
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