Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is receiving report and is faced with the following situations that require intervention. Which of the following should the nurse manager address first?

• A. No transport assistance is available to take the client to PT.
• B. A client is refusing care from an AP of the opposite gender.
• C. Three staff members have called to say they will be absent.
• D. Two nurses had a heated disagreement about a scheduling issue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Addressing the absence of three staff members should be the nurse manager's priority as it directly impacts staffing levels and patient care. This situation can lead to staffing shortages, affecting patient safety and workload distribution. Option A, lack of transport assistance, although important, can be addressed after ensuring adequate staffing. Option B involves a client's preference and can be addressed by assigning care appropriately. Option D, a disagreement between two nurses, is important but can be addressed after ensuring adequate staffing and patient care.

2. Which of the following best describes evidence-based practice?

• A. Using outdated research
• B. Relying on personal experience alone
• C. Integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence
• D. Disregarding patient preferences

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evidence-based practice involves integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence to make informed decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect as evidence-based practice relies on current and relevant research. Choice B is incorrect as it emphasizes the importance of not relying solely on personal experience. Choice D is incorrect as patient preferences play a significant role in evidence-based practice.

3. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

• A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
• B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
• C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
• D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up, and metabolic acidosis increases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The healthcare professional understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level?

• A. Prolonged bed rest
• B. Renal insufficiency
• C. Hyperparathyroidism
• D. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolonged bed rest can lead to hypocalcemia due to decreased mobility and bone resorption. In this scenario, the low serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is likely a result of decreased bone activity and calcium release due to prolonged bed rest. Renal insufficiency would more likely lead to hypercalcemia due to impaired excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by increased calcium levels as a result of excess parathyroid hormone. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D can cause hypercalcemia by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.

5. Which technique or method is used to determine whether or not the patient has an irregular pulse?

• A. Apical pulse
• B. Inspection
• C. Auscultation
• D. Percussion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An apical pulse check is used to determine if the patient has an irregular pulse. The apical pulse is located at the point of maximal impulse (PMI) and is assessed using a stethoscope. Choice B, inspection, involves visual examination and is not used to assess pulse irregularities. Choice C, auscultation, involves listening to internal sounds using a stethoscope, which can be used to assess heart sounds but not specifically for pulse irregularities. Choice D, percussion, is a technique used to assess the density of body tissues or detect abnormal masses and is not used to determine pulse irregularities.

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