Nursing Elites

1. Select the types of pain that are accurately coupled with an example of it. Select all that are correct.

• A. Radicular pain: Pain shooting down the leg from a herniated disc
• B. Central neuropathic pain: Pain from nerve damage after a stroke
• C. Peripheral neuropathic pain: Pain from diabetic neuropathy in the feet
• D. Chronic pain: Pain lasting for more than 3-6 months

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because chronic pain is characterized by lasting for a prolonged period, typically more than 3-6 months, and is not necessarily related to acute injuries like a stab wound to the chest. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately match the type of pain with its corresponding example. Radicular pain is pain that radiates along the nerve path, often from a pinched nerve or herniated disc, not a broken bone. Central neuropathic pain arises from damage to the central nervous system, such as after a stroke, not a leg injury. Peripheral neuropathic pain is caused by damage to the peripheral nerves, such as in diabetic neuropathy, not a fractured leg bone.

2. While administering penicillin intravenously, you notice that the patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first action you should take?

• A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• C. Call the doctor.
• D. Stop the intravenous flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate after administering penicillin intravenously is to stop the intravenous flow immediately. This can help prevent further complications by discontinuing the administration of the medication that might be causing the adverse effects. Decreasing or increasing the rate of medication flow may not address the underlying issue of the patient's adverse reaction. While it's important to involve the healthcare provider in such situations, the immediate priority is to halt the administration of the medication.

3. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

4. A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to note in the client?

• A. Twitching
• B. Positive Trousseau's sign
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Twitching. Hypocalcemia often presents with neuromuscular irritability, leading to manifestations such as twitching. Trousseau's sign is actually a positive indicator of hypocalcemia, not negative, making choice B incorrect. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not typically associated with hypocalcemia, making choice C incorrect. Similarly, hypoactive deep tendon reflexes are not a common finding in hypocalcemia, making choice D incorrect.

5. A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

• A. ST depression
• B. Inverted T wave
• C. Prominent U wave
• D. Tall peaked T waves

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tall peaked T waves.' Tall peaked T waves are characteristic ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia. In hyperkalemia, the elevated potassium levels affect the myocardium, leading to changes in the ECG. ST depression (Choice A) is more commonly associated with myocardial ischemia or infarction. Inverted T wave (Choice B) is seen in conditions like myocardial ischemia or CNS events. Prominent U wave (Choice C) is typically associated with hypokalemia or certain medications. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse would expect to note tall peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram due to the elevated potassium level.

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