Nursing Elites

1. A client has a blood glucose level of 70 mg/dl and reports feeling shaky and weak. What is the best initial action by the nurse?

• A. Obtain a fingerstick glucose reading
• B. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
• C. Perform a quick assessment of the client’s neuro status
• D. Provide a glass of milk and monitor the client’s symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate is the best initial action to address hypoglycemia symptoms promptly by raising blood glucose levels. This intervention is crucial to prevent further deterioration in the client's condition. Obtaining a fingerstick glucose reading is important but may delay treatment. Performing a quick assessment of the client's neuro status is secondary to addressing the immediate low blood glucose levels. Providing a glass of milk is not the recommended first-line treatment for hypoglycemia; fast-acting carbohydrates are preferred to rapidly increase blood sugar levels.

2. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in early labor, and the nurse assesses the status of her contractions. The frequency of contractions is most accurately evaluated by counting the minutes and seconds in which manner?

• A. From the peak of one contraction to the peak of the next contraction
• B. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of that contraction
• C. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
• D. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The frequency of contractions is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. This timing is crucial in determining the progress of labor. Choice A, measuring from peak to peak, is incorrect as it assesses the duration between the highest points of contractions, which is not how frequency is calculated. Choice B, measuring from the beginning to the end of one contraction, is incorrect as it does not consider the start of the next contraction. Choice D, measuring from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction, is incorrect as it misses the initial onset of the following contraction.

3. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned, and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the nurse notes late decelerations during contractions despite repositioning and oxygen administration. Late decelerations are often associated with uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by increased uterine activity stimulated by oxytocin. The initial action to manage late decelerations is to turn off the oxytocin infusion to reduce uterine stimulation. This step aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth may be necessary if the late decelerations persist or worsen despite discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Notifying the anesthesiologist to disconnect the epidural infusion or applying an internal fetal monitoring device are not the first-line interventions for managing late decelerations.

4. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?

• A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
• B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
• C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
• D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.

5. A client with a large pleural effusion undergoes a thoracentesis. Following the procedure, which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. The client has asymmetrical chest wall expansion
• B. The client complains of pain at the insertion site
• C. The client's chest x-ray indicates decreased pleural effusion
• D. The client's arterial blood gases show pH 7.35, PaO2 85, PaCO2 35, HCO3 26

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Asymmetrical chest wall expansion is a critical finding post-thoracentesis as it may suggest a pneumothorax, requiring immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The other options, such as pain at the insertion site (Choice B), decreased pleural effusion on chest x-ray (Choice C), and normal arterial blood gases within acceptable ranges (Choice D) do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like asymmetrical chest wall expansion does.

Similar Questions