Nursing Elites

1. An older male client arrives at the clinic complaining that his bladder always feels full. He complains of a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Palpate the client’s suprapubic area for distention
• B. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week
• C. Instruct the client in effective techniques for cleansing the glans penis
• D. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Advising the client to maintain a voiding diary is the appropriate action in this case. A voiding diary helps track symptoms and patterns essential for diagnosing conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia or other urinary issues. Palpating the client’s suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) may provide information about bladder fullness but does not address the need for tracking symptoms. Instructing the client in techniques for cleansing the glans penis (Choice C) is not relevant to the client's urinary complaints. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice D) may be necessary but does not directly address the client's symptoms of weak urine flow and difficulty initiating the urine stream.

2. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
• B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
• C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
• D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.

3. A client receives a prescription for acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) 1.4 grams per nasogastric tube q4 hours. Acetylcysteine is available as a 10% solution (10 grams/100ml). How many ml of the 10% solution should the nurse administer per dose?

• A. 7
• B. 10
• C. 14
• D. 1.4 grams of acetylcysteine is equivalent to 14 ml of a 10% solution.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the amount of the 10% acetylcysteine solution to administer, convert the 1.4 grams to milligrams (1.4 grams = 1400 mg). Then, as the 10% solution contains 10 grams (10,000 mg) per 100 ml, it means there are 1000 mg of acetylcysteine in every 10 ml of the solution (10,000 mg / 100 ml = 100 mg/ml). Therefore, to administer 1400 mg (1.4 grams) of acetylcysteine, the nurse should give 14 ml of the 10% solution. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not accurately convert the amount of acetylcysteine to the corresponding volume of the 10% solution.

4. An older male client with a history of type 1 diabetes has not felt well for the past few days and arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping and vomiting. He is lethargic, moderately confused, and cannot remember when he took his last dose of insulin or ate last. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. obtain a serum potassium level
• B. administer the client's usual dose of insulin
• C. assess pupillary response to light
• D. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering IV fluids is crucial to address potential dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, especially if the client is unable to provide a clear history. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline will help rehydrate the client and address any electrolyte imbalances, which are common in clients with diabetes experiencing symptoms like abdominal cramping and vomiting. Obtaining a serum potassium level can be important but is not the priority when the client is showing signs of dehydration and confusion. Administering insulin should only be done after addressing hydration and electrolyte status. Assessing pupillary response to light is not the most critical action in this situation compared to addressing dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances.

5. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?

• A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
• B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
• C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
• D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.

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