Nursing Elites

1. A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assist the client in conserving energy during daily activities
• B. Explain to the client that this could be a side effect of the medication
• C. Assess the client for pallor
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a balanced diet and hydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.

2. The nurse has explained safety precautions and infant care to a primigravida mother and observes the mother as she gives care to her newborn during the first two days of rooming-in. Which action indicates the mother understands the instruction?

• A. Aspirates the newborn’s nares using a syringe
• B. Applies a dressing to the cord after the newborn’s bath
• C. Breastfeeds the infant every hour during the night
• D. Positions the infant supine in the crib to sleep

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the infant supine in the crib to sleep is the correct action that indicates the mother understands the instruction. This position is recommended to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Choice A is incorrect as it is not a routine or recommended practice to aspirate the newborn’s nares using a syringe without a specific medical indication. Choice B is incorrect because applying a dressing to the cord after the newborn's bath is not a standard care practice. Choice C is incorrect because breastfeeding every hour during the night is excessive and not a recommended feeding schedule for a newborn.

3. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.

4. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

• A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
• B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
• C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
• D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.

5. Which laboratory finding should the nurse expect to see in a child with acute rheumatic fever?

• A. Thrombocytopenia
• B. Polycythemia
• C. Decreased ESR
• D. Positive ASO titer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive ASO titer. A positive ASO titer indicates recent streptococcal infection, which is associated with acute rheumatic fever. Thrombocytopenia (choice A) is not a typical laboratory finding in acute rheumatic fever. Polycythemia (choice B) refers to an increased red blood cell count, which is not typically seen in acute rheumatic fever. Decreased ESR (choice C) is not a common laboratory finding in acute rheumatic fever; in fact, ESR is often elevated in inflammatory conditions like rheumatic fever.

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