Nursing Elites

1. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 ml/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine what IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Slow the infusion rate.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the IV site.
• D. Discontinue the IV line and start a new one.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to determine what IV medications have recently been administered. This is important to identify if the pain at the IV site is related to a medication infusion. Slowing the infusion rate (choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the pain. Applying a warm compress (choice C) is not necessary since there is no redness or edema around the IV site. Discontinuing the IV line and starting a new one (choice D) is a drastic step and should not be the first action taken without investigating the cause of the pain.

2. An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

• A. Assist with personal care, but leave oral care for the nurse to complete.
• B. Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.
• C. Use alcohol-based mouthwash to clean the ulcers.
• D. Apply an antifungal cream to the mouth ulcers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.

3. While assisting a female client to the toilet, the client begins to have a seizure, and the nurse eases her to the floor. The nurse calls for help and monitors the client until the seizing stops. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Document details of the seizure activity.
• B. Observe for lacerations on the tongue.
• C. Observe for prolonged periods of apnea.
• D. Evaluate for evidence of incontinence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Documenting details of the seizure activity is the priority intervention as it is crucial for medical records and future care planning. This documentation can provide vital information for healthcare providers in understanding the type, duration, and characteristics of the seizure. Observing for lacerations on the tongue, prolonged periods of apnea, or evidence of incontinence are important assessments, but they come after documenting the seizure activity.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

• A. The client is hyperventilating due to anxiety.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.
• D. The client is experiencing metabolic acidosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

5. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

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