Nursing Elites

1. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 ml/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine what IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Slow the infusion rate.
• C. Apply a warm compress to the IV site.
• D. Discontinue the IV line and start a new one.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to determine what IV medications have recently been administered. This is important to identify if the pain at the IV site is related to a medication infusion. Slowing the infusion rate (choice B) may not address the underlying cause of the pain. Applying a warm compress (choice C) is not necessary since there is no redness or edema around the IV site. Discontinuing the IV line and starting a new one (choice D) is a drastic step and should not be the first action taken without investigating the cause of the pain.

2. The nurse is recording a history for a child who has been diagnosed with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP). What is a finding that is characteristic of this disorder?

• A. Morning headaches
• B. Pain for 3 consecutive months
• C. Febrile episodes in the late afternoon
• D. Diaphoresis when attacks occur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain for 3 consecutive months. Recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) is characterized by abdominal pain that occurs at least once per week for at least 2 months before diagnosis. Choosing option A is incorrect since morning headaches are not a common characteristic of RAP. Option C is incorrect because febrile episodes in the late afternoon are not typically associated with RAP. Option D is incorrect as diaphoresis (excessive sweating) when attacks occur is not a common finding in RAP.

3. Which laboratory results should the nurse anticipate to be abnormal in a child with hemophilia?

• A. Prothrombin time
• B. Bleeding time
• C. Platelet count
• D. Partial thromboplastin time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a child with hemophilia, the nurse should anticipate an abnormality in the partial thromboplastin time (PTT) due to the deficiency in clotting factors. Prothrombin time, bleeding time, and platelet count are typically normal in hemophilia. Prothrombin time measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not affected in hemophilia. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, which is normal in hemophilia as the issue lies with clotting proteins, not platelets. Platelet count is also expected to be normal unless there is another underlying condition affecting platelet production or function.

4. While assisting a female client to the toilet, the client begins to have a seizure, and the nurse eases her to the floor. The nurse calls for help and monitors the client until the seizing stops. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Document details of the seizure activity.
• B. Observe for lacerations on the tongue.
• C. Observe for prolonged periods of apnea.
• D. Evaluate for evidence of incontinence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Documenting details of the seizure activity is the priority intervention as it is crucial for medical records and future care planning. This documentation can provide vital information for healthcare providers in understanding the type, duration, and characteristics of the seizure. Observing for lacerations on the tongue, prolonged periods of apnea, or evidence of incontinence are important assessments, but they come after documenting the seizure activity.

5. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

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