Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for a client experiencing a nosebleed?

• A. Sitting up and leaning forward
• B. Lying flat with a pillow under the head
• C. Sitting up and leaning back
• D. Lying on the side with the head elevated

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a client experiencing a nosebleed is sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing down the throat and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice B is incorrect as lying flat can lead to blood flowing down the throat. Choice C is also incorrect because leaning back may cause blood to flow backward into the throat. Choice D is incorrect as lying on the side with the head elevated is not the optimal position to manage a nosebleed effectively.

2. When conducting a class for parents about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), the nurse instructs the class that the infant should be placed in which position to sleep?

• A. Right side-lying
• B. Left side-lying
• C. Prone
• D. Supine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, supine. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends placing infants on their back, or supine, to sleep as it has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing infants on their right side, left side, or prone (on their stomach) respectively are not recommended sleeping positions due to the increased risk of SIDS associated with those positions.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.

4. The nurse is caring for a newborn with a myelomeningocele. Before surgery, what should the nursing interventions include?

• A. Leaving the lesion uncovered and placing the infant supine
• B. Covering the lesion with a sterile, saline-soaked gauze
• C. Applying lotion to the lesion to keep it moist
• D. Covering the lesion with a dry, sterile gauze

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention before surgery for a newborn with a myelomeningocele is to cover the lesion with a sterile, saline-soaked gauze. This helps protect the exposed spinal cord and meninges from infection and damage. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the lesion uncovered can increase the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because applying lotion can introduce contaminants to the lesion. Choice D is incorrect because covering the lesion with a dry gauze can lead to adherence of the gauze to the wound, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the healing process.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Kussmaul respirations
• B. Asterixis (flapping tremor)
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Asterixis, also known as a flapping tremor, is a common sign of hepatic encephalopathy, indicating neurological dysfunction due to liver failure. Kussmaul respirations (option A) are associated with metabolic acidosis, which is not a typical manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy. Bradycardia (option C) and hypertension (option D) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy; in fact, hepatic encephalopathy is more commonly associated with alterations in mental status, neuromuscular abnormalities, and changes in behavior.

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