an adult male was diagnosed with stage iv lung cancer three weeks ago his wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husbands death
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT

1. An adult male was diagnosed with stage IV lung cancer three weeks ago. His wife approaches the nurse and asks how she will know that her husband's death is imminent because their two adult children want to be there when he dies. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to explain that the client will start to lose consciousness and his body systems will slow down. Providing information on the signs of impending death helps the family prepare emotionally and allows them to be present at the appropriate time. Choice B is incorrect because it does not empower the family with the knowledge they seek. Choice C is incorrect as discussing the client’s health status individually with the adult children may not address the wife's immediate concern. Choice D is incorrect as the priority should be on preparing the family for the signs of imminent death rather than focusing on logistical details.

2. After receiving report, which client should the nurse assess last?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client with rectal tube drainage of clear pale red liquid is likely to be the least urgent since this is a normal post-operative finding. Clear pale red liquid drainage from a rectal tube is typically not a cause for immediate concern. Choices A, B, and C present clients with concerning signs that may require more immediate assessment and intervention. A client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing may indicate active bleeding, a client with a compressed Jackson-Pratt drain bulb may have inadequate drainage resulting in complications, and a client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube may be experiencing gastrointestinal issues that need prompt evaluation.

3. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) has applied a gown and gloves and secured the tops of the gloves over the gown sleeves. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proper application of personal protective equipment (PPE) is crucial to maintain infection control. In this scenario, the nurse should help the UAP reposition the gown sleeve over the gloves' edges. This action ensures that the gown properly covers the gloves, reducing the risk of contamination. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary concern is to address the improper application of PPE by repositioning the gown sleeves over the gloves, not checking other aspects of PPE or reminding about hand hygiene.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.

5. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.

Similar Questions

A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RMP) daily, so direct observation therapy (DOT) is initiated while the client is hospitalized. Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?
Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?
What information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a client with low back pain who is taking cyclobenzaprine to control muscle spasms?
Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client’s right leg?
An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses