Nursing Elites

1. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe for signs of deep vein thrombosis.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant.
• C. Check the client’s most recent electrolyte values.
• D. Reduce the weight on the traction device.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.

2. A nurse working on an endocrine unit should see which client first?

• A. An adolescent male with diabetes who is arguing about his insulin dose.
• B. An older client with Addison’s disease whose current blood sugar level is 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l).
• C. An adult with a blood sugar of 384mg/dl (21.31mmol/l) and urine output of 350 ml in the last hour.
• D. A client taking corticosteroids who has become disoriented in the last two hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The client with Addison’s disease and a blood sugar level of 62mg/dl (3.44 mmol/l) is experiencing hypoglycemia, which can progress to adrenal crisis. This situation requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D, although concerning, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the client with Addison’s disease and hypoglycemia. The adolescent arguing about his insulin dose can be addressed after stabilizing the client with Addison’s disease. The adult with high blood sugar and increased urine output may have hyperglycemia but is not in immediate danger. The client taking corticosteroids who is disoriented needs evaluation but is not in an acute life-threatening condition as the client with hypoglycemia.

3. An older male resident of a long-term care facility has been scratching his legs for the past 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain the importance of bathing or showering daily
• B. Encourage fluid intake of at least 2,000 ml daily
• C. Keep the legs covered as much as possible
• D. Apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily. This is because applying emollients helps address dry skin, which is a common cause of itching in older adults. Explaining the importance of bathing or showering daily (Choice A) may be helpful for general hygiene but may not specifically address the itching. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and keeping the legs covered (Choice C) are not directly related to addressing the itching caused by dry skin.

4. Assessment findings of a 3-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 97.7°F, heart rate of 140 beats/minute with a soft murmur, and irregular respiratory rate at 42 breaths/min. Based on these findings, what action should the nurse implement?

• A. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel
• B. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket
• C. Record the findings on the flow sheet
• D. Check the vital signs in 15 minutes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to record the findings on the flow sheet. The newborn's axillary temperature, heart rate, and respiratory rate are within normal limits for a 3-hour-old newborn. Therefore, there is no immediate need for intervention or further assessment. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket, placing a pulse oximeter on the heel, or checking the vital signs in 15 minutes are not necessary actions based on the normal assessment findings presented. These actions could potentially disrupt the newborn or lead to unnecessary interventions when the baby is stable.

5. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?

• A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
• B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
• C. Tinnitus and vertigo
• D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.

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