Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

2. To evaluate the medication’s effectiveness in a client with a respiratory tract infection, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. White blood cell (WBC) count
• B. Sputum culture and sensitivity
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell (WBC) count. Monitoring the WBC count helps assess the overall response to infection and the effectiveness of the antibiotic. Sputum culture and sensitivity (choice B) are also important to confirm if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogen. Choices C and D, droplet precautions and protective environment, are not laboratory values but rather infection control measures that do not directly evaluate the medication's effectiveness in treating the infection.

3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assist the client in conserving energy during daily activities
• B. Explain to the client that this could be a side effect of the medication
• C. Assess the client for pallor
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a balanced diet and hydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

5. A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in early labor, and the nurse assesses the status of her contractions. The frequency of contractions is most accurately evaluated by counting the minutes and seconds in which manner?

• A. From the peak of one contraction to the peak of the next contraction
• B. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of that contraction
• C. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
• D. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The frequency of contractions is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. This timing is crucial in determining the progress of labor. Choice A, measuring from peak to peak, is incorrect as it assesses the duration between the highest points of contractions, which is not how frequency is calculated. Choice B, measuring from the beginning to the end of one contraction, is incorrect as it does not consider the start of the next contraction. Choice D, measuring from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction, is incorrect as it misses the initial onset of the following contraction.

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