Nursing Elites

1. A 12-year-old client who had an appendectomy two days ago is receiving 0.9% normal saline at 50 ml/hour. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.035. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage popsicles and fluids of choice
• B. Evaluate postural blood pressure measurements
• C. Obtain a specimen for urinalysis
• D. Assess bowel sounds in all quadrants

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging fluids helps address dehydration and potentially high urine specific gravity, which is often related to inadequate fluid intake. In this scenario, the client may be at risk of dehydration due to the appendectomy and the high urine specific gravity. Encouraging popsicles and fluids of choice can help increase fluid intake and improve hydration status. The other options are not the priority at this time. Postural blood pressure measurements may be relevant for assessing fluid status but are not the immediate action needed. Obtaining a specimen for urinalysis and assessing bowel sounds are not the priority actions based on the client's condition.

2. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with end-stage lung cancer. The client expresses concern about ongoing pain management. Which nursing action is most appropriate to include in the plan of care?

• A. Consult the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management
• B. Schedule the client for physical therapy to manage pain
• C. Recommend the client attend a support group for cancer patients
• D. Suggest alternative therapies like acupuncture or massage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Consulting the healthcare provider for recommendations on pain management is the most appropriate action. The healthcare provider can assess the client's pain, prescribe appropriate medications, and adjust the pain management plan as needed. In end-stage cancer, managing pain often requires pharmacological interventions that the healthcare provider can best provide. Physical therapy (choice B) may not be the primary intervention for pain management in end-stage cancer. While attending a support group (choice C) can provide emotional support, it does not directly address the client's pain management concerns. Suggesting alternative therapies (choice D) is not the initial step; consulting the healthcare provider should come first to ensure a comprehensive and tailored pain management plan.

4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory alkalosis
• D. Respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.

5. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?

• A. Ineffective airway clearance
• B. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
• C. Fluid volume excess
• D. Activity intolerance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing problem for the postoperative client following a ureterolithotomy via a flank incision is ineffective airway clearance. After surgery, there is a risk of airway obstruction due to factors like anesthesia, positioning during surgery, or the presence of secretions. Maintaining a clear airway is crucial to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis or pneumonia. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important considerations but are secondary to the immediate threat of compromised airway clearance in the postoperative period.

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