HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A client is 48 hours post-op from a bowel resection and has not had a bowel movement. The client is complaining of abdominal pain and bloating. What is the nurse’s best action?
- A. Administer a prescribed laxative.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds is the best initial action in this situation. It helps the nurse assess bowel function before considering interventions like administering a laxative. Abdominal pain and bloating could be indicative of bowel motility issues, and auscultation can provide crucial information. Encouraging increased fluid intake can be beneficial in promoting bowel movement, but assessing bowel sounds is more immediate to evaluate the current status. Notifying the healthcare provider should be reserved for situations where immediate intervention is needed or if the condition worsens after assessment.
2. Which of the following components of nutrition has a primary function of helping with tissue growth and repair?
- A. Vitamin D
- B. Vitamin E
- C. Protein
- D. Fat
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Protein is the correct answer as it is essential for tissue growth and repair. Proteins are composed of amino acids, the building blocks of body tissues. While vitamins D and E have important roles in the body, they are not primarily responsible for tissue growth and repair. Fats are crucial for various bodily functions, like providing energy, but they are not the primary component involved in tissue growth and repair.
3. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
- A. Gallstones
- B. Alcohol abuse
- C. Hypertriglyceridemia
- D. Infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gallstones. Gallstones are the most common cause of acute pancreatitis as they obstruct the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation. While alcohol abuse (Choice B) can also cause pancreatitis, gallstones are more prevalent. Hypertriglyceridemia (Choice C) is a less common cause of acute pancreatitis compared to gallstones. Infection (Choice D) is not a primary cause of acute pancreatitis; gallstones are the leading etiology.
4. The PN reviews a client's medication history and learns that the client takes an anticoagulant and has recently started taking phenytoin. Which instruction should the PN provide when assigning the client's morning care to a UAP?
- A. Measure the temperature every 4 hours
- B. Elevate both feet on two pillows
- C. Initiate hourly turning schedule
- D. Protect skin from injury and bruising
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protect skin from injury and bruising. Phenytoin and anticoagulants both increase the risk of bleeding. Protecting the skin from injury and bruising is critical to prevent complications, making it important to instruct the UAP accordingly. Measuring the temperature every 4 hours (Choice A) may not be directly related to the client's medications. Elevating both feet on two pillows (Choice B) is more relevant for issues like edema. Initiating an hourly turning schedule (Choice C) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, but in this case, the priority is to prevent bleeding due to the medications.
5. Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?
- A. Contact isolation
- B. Airborne isolation
- C. Droplet isolation
- D. Reverse isolation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.
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