Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:

• A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
• B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
• C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
• D. Developmental delays in children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.

2. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse with expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, risk reduction, and adult learning principles.

• A. case manager
• B. health educator
• C. nurse consultant
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: health promotion specialist.' This title aligns with the described expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, and risk reduction. A health promotion specialist focuses on promoting health and preventing illnesses, which directly corresponds to the skills mentioned in the job description. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'case manager' typically focuses on coordinating patient care, 'health educator' specifically emphasizes educating individuals on health topics, and a 'nurse consultant' offers expert advice and support in the nursing field but may not specialize in health promotion and risk reduction as required in this job description.

3. A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Lethargy
• B. Agitation
• C. Ataxia
• D. Hearing loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lethargy is a critical finding that requires the nurse's immediate attention when a client with a recent skull fracture is readmitted to the hospital. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Addressing lethargy promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Agitation, ataxia, and hearing loss are important to assess but do not signify the same level of urgency as lethargy in this context.

4. Which one of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates teaching about Inderal (propranolol) has been effective?

• A. ''I may experience seizures if I stop the medication abruptly.''
• B. ''I may experience an increase in my heart rate for a few weeks.''
• C. ''I can expect to feel nervousness the first few weeks.''
• D. ''I can have a heart attack if I stop this medication suddenly.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stopping Inderal (propranolol) abruptly can cause rebound hypertension, angina, and even a myocardial infarction (heart attack), so it is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the serious consequences associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.

5. Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Genetic mutations
• C. Housing conditions
• D. Age

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Housing conditions. Social determinants of health are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. Housing conditions directly impact health outcomes as they can affect exposure to toxins, safety, and overall well-being. Choice A, blood pressure, is a physiological measure and not a social determinant. Choice B, genetic mutations, relates to an individual's genetic makeup and is not influenced by social factors. Choice D, age, is a demographic factor and not a social determinant of health.

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