Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:

• A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
• B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
• C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
• D. Developmental delays in children.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.

2. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.

3. Which topic should the nurse include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents?

• A. Risk factors for heart disease.
• B. Dietary management of obesity.
• C. Suicide risks and prevention.
• D. Coping with stressful situations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct topic that the nurse should include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents is suicide risks and prevention. Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to mental health issues, including suicidal ideation. Educating them about suicide risks and prevention strategies is crucial for early intervention and support. Choices A, B, and D are important topics, but when considering primary prevention for adolescents, addressing suicide risks and prevention takes precedence due to its immediate life-saving implications.

4. A client with a fractured femur is in Buck's traction. The nurse should assess for which of the following complications?

• A. Foot drop
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Foot drop is a potential complication of prolonged immobility and improper positioning in traction. In Buck's traction, the lower extremity is suspended to immobilize and align the fractured femur. Prolonged suspension of the leg in traction can lead to nerve damage, specifically to the common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop. Urinary retention, constipation, and muscle spasms are not directly associated with Buck's traction and a fractured femur.

5. A client has been admitted for meningitis. In reviewing the laboratory analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the nurse would expect to note

• A. High protein
• B. Clear color
• C. Elevated sed rate
• D. Increased glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: High protein levels in the cerebrospinal fluid are indicative of bacterial meningitis, as the presence of bacteria in the CSF leads to increased protein production. Elevated protein levels can be seen in inflammatory conditions like meningitis. Choice B, clear color, is not expected in meningitis as it is typically associated with cloudy or turbid CSF. Elevated sed rate (choice C) and increased glucose (choice D) are not typically associated with the laboratory findings seen in meningitis.

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