Nursing Elites

1. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

2. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been “trying to start a new business” and is “too busy to eat.” He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Disturbed sleep pattern
• C. Disturbed thought processes
• D. Imbalanced nutrition

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the priority in this case as the patient has lost a significant amount of weight and is neglecting self-care, such as bathing and eating properly. The weight loss indicates a serious issue that needs immediate attention to prevent further health complications. While self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are also concerns for this patient, addressing the imbalanced nutrition takes precedence due to the potential impact on the patient's physical health. Neglecting proper nutrition can lead to serious complications, so it is crucial to address this issue first.

3. A continuous infusion of nitroglycerin is prescribed for an adult male admitted with an acute myocardial infarction. The client is experiencing active chest pain that he describes as 8 out of 10. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer the infusion via an infusion pump
• B. Obtain the current serum potassium level
• C. Continuously monitor blood pressure
• D. Teach guided imagery to decrease pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuously monitoring blood pressure is crucial in this case because nitroglycerin can cause hypotension as a side effect. Monitoring blood pressure allows the nurse to assess the client's response to the medication and detect any signs of hypotension promptly. This intervention is essential to ensure the effectiveness of nitroglycerin therapy and prevent potential complications. Administering the infusion via an infusion pump is important for accurate dosing but not the most critical at this moment. Obtaining the current serum potassium level is important but not the most immediate concern when the client is experiencing active chest pain. Teaching guided imagery may be beneficial for pain management, but in this scenario, monitoring blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential side effects of nitroglycerin.

4. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.

5. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

• A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
• B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
• C. Ineffective coping related to denial
• D. Decisional conflict due to stress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.

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