Nursing Elites

1. A client with a severe prostatic infection that caused a blocked urethra is 3 days post-surgical urinary diversion. The healthcare provider directs the nurse to remove the suprapubic catheter to allow the client to void normally. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the site around the catheter
• B. Use a 20 ml syringe to deflate balloon
• C. Clamp catheter until the client voids naturally
• D. Empty urine from the urinary drainage bag

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use a 20 ml syringe to deflate the balloon first when removing a suprapubic catheter. This step is essential to ensure the safe removal of the catheter without causing any harm or discomfort to the client. Deflating the balloon allows for the catheter to be easily removed. Option A, cleansing the site around the catheter, is not the initial step in this process and can be done after catheter removal. Option C, clamping the catheter until the client voids naturally, is incorrect as it can lead to complications like urinary retention. Option D, emptying urine from the urinary drainage bag, is not the first step in removing the suprapubic catheter and does not address the need to deflate the balloon for safe removal.

2. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity
• B. The client who had surgery yesterday and is experiencing a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds
• C. The client with an obstruction of the large intestine who is experiencing abdominal distention
• D. The client with a small bowel obstruction who has a nasogastric tube that is draining greenish fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Abdominal rigidity in a client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus indicates possible complications and requires immediate assessment. Choice B is incorrect because although a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds is concerning, abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus takes priority. Choice C is incorrect as abdominal distention, though indicative of an obstruction, is not as urgent as the sign of abdominal rigidity. Choice D is incorrect as the drainage of greenish fluid from a nasogastric tube in a client with a small bowel obstruction, while concerning, does not present as immediate a threat as the abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus.

3. Which type of wound would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider?

• A. Laceration
• B. Abrasion
• C. Contusion
• D. Ulceration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A laceration would most likely require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider due to its deeper tissue damage, significant bleeding, and higher risk of infection compared to abrasions, contusions, and ulcerations. Lacerations often need prompt attention to control bleeding, clean the wound, and reduce the risk of infection. Abrasions are superficial wounds that usually do not require urgent attention as they tend to heal well on their own with basic wound care. Contusions are bruises that typically resolve on their own without immediate intervention. Ulcerations are open sores that may require intervention but not necessarily immediate action unless complicated by infection or other issues.

4. A male client with schizophrenia is jerking his neck and smacking his lips. Which finding indicates to the nurse that he is experiencing an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic agents?

• A. Cramping muscular pain
• B. Worming movements of the tongue
• C. Decreased tendon reflexes
• D. Dry oral mucous membranes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Worming movements of the tongue. Worming movements of the tongue, known as tardive dyskinesia, are an irreversible side effect of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, trunk, and extremities. Cramping muscular pain (Choice A) is more indicative of dystonia, an extrapyramidal side effect that can be treated effectively with antiparkinsonian medications. Decreased tendon reflexes (Choice C) are not typically associated with irreversible side effects of antipsychotic agents. Dry oral mucous membranes (Choice D) are not specific to irreversible side effects of antipsychotic medications.

5. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

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