Nursing Elites

1. A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain that the symptoms are caused by liver damage and can be managed
• B. Obtain a PRN prescription for an analgesic that the client can use for symptom relief
• C. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply oil-based lotion after soaking
• D. Suggest that the client take brief showers and apply oil-based lotion after showering

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cooler water and oil-based lotion can help relieve pruritus and improve comfort in clients with cirrhosis experiencing jaundice and pruritus. Hot baths can exacerbate itching, so it is important to suggest cooler showers instead. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms like pruritus can be managed. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention for pruritus related to liver disease. Choice C suggests the use of calamine lotion, which may not be as effective as oil-based lotion for relieving pruritus in this case.

2. When attempting to establish risk reduction strategies in a community, the nurse notes that regional studies indicate a high number of persons with growth stunting and irreversible mental deficiencies caused by hypothyroidism (cretinism). The nurse should seek funding to implement which screening measure?

• A. T3 levels in school-aged children
• B. T4 levels in newborns
• C. TSH levels in women over 45
• D. Iodine levels in all persons over 60

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Screening T4 levels in newborns is crucial as it helps in the early detection of hypothyroidism, which can prevent conditions like cretinism. Checking T3 levels in school-aged children (Choice A) is not the most appropriate measure for early detection of hypothyroidism in newborns. Monitoring TSH levels in women over 45 (Choice C) is not directly related to detecting hypothyroidism in newborns. Additionally, monitoring iodine levels in all persons over 60 (Choice D) is not specifically aimed at early detection of hypothyroidism in newborns, which is crucial to prevent cretinism.

3. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
• D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.

4. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the azithromycin right after breakfast
• B. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the azithromycin
• C. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating
• D. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the azithromycin the next day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.

5. When designing a plan of care for a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, a goal statement should be prepared that relates to which topic?

• A. Psychological counseling to address emotional well-being
• B. Medication teaching concerning adrenergic blockers
• C. Preoperative and postoperative teaching for adrenalectomy
• D. Education on dietary modifications for hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Preoperative and postoperative teaching for adrenalectomy. Pheochromocytoma often requires adrenalectomy as part of the treatment plan. Therefore, educating the client about what to expect before and after the surgery is crucial for optimal care and outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A focuses on emotional well-being rather than the specific surgical intervention needed for pheochromocytoma. Choice B is unrelated as the primary treatment for pheochromocytoma is surgical rather than medication-based. Choice D, though related to managing hypertension, does not address the surgical aspect of treating pheochromocytoma.

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