Nursing Elites

1. After a discussion with the health care provider, the parents of an infant with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) ask the nurse to explain once again what PDA is. How should the nurse respond?

• A. The diameter of the aorta is enlarged.
• B. The wall between the right and left ventricles is open.
• C. It is a narrowing of the entrance to the pulmonary artery.
• D. It is a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It is a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta.' Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is an abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which normally closes after birth. Choices A, B, and C describe different cardiac conditions and do not accurately define PDA. Choice A is incorrect because PDA does not involve the diameter of the aorta being enlarged. Choice B is incorrect because PDA does not involve the wall between the right and left ventricles being open. Choice C is incorrect because PDA is not a narrowing of the entrance to the pulmonary artery.

2. The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl with an endocrine disorder involving the posterior pituitary gland. What care would the nurse expect to implement?

• A. Instructing the parents to report adverse reactions to the growth hormone treatment
• B. Teaching the parents how to administer desmopressin acetate
• C. Informing the parents that treatment stops when puberty begins
• D. Educating the parents to report signs of acute adrenal crisis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a child with a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland, desmopressin acetate is commonly used to manage the condition by replacing the antidiuretic hormone. Instructing the parents to administer desmopressin acetate correctly is essential for the child's treatment. The other options are incorrect because growth hormone treatment, stopping treatment at puberty, and reporting signs of acute adrenal crisis are not directly related to managing a disorder of the posterior pituitary gland.

3. An 8-year-old child diagnosed with meningitis is to undergo a lumbar puncture. What should the nurse explain is the purpose of this procedure?

• A. To measure the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid
• B. To obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis
• C. To relieve intracranial pressure
• D. To assess the presence of infection in the spinal fluid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A lumbar puncture is performed to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. This fluid is then examined for signs of infection, bleeding, or other abnormalities. Measuring the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid is typically done during the procedure itself, but it is not the primary purpose of the lumbar puncture. While a lumbar puncture can indirectly help relieve intracranial pressure by removing excess cerebrospinal fluid, this is not its primary purpose. Assessing the presence of infection in the spinal fluid is part of the analysis that follows the collection of the sample, making it a secondary outcome of the procedure.

4. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition characterized by the widespread formation of blood clots throughout the body. In DIC, clotting factors are consumed, leading to increased fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster blood clotting, which is not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) is also not a characteristic finding in DIC, as fibrinogen levels may be decreased due to consumption in the formation of clots. Increased platelets (Choice D) are not typically observed in DIC; instead, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count) is more common due to their consumption in clot formation.

5. Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, a healthcare professional decides to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the healthcare provider. Below what apical pulse did the healthcare professional withhold the medication?

• A. 60 beats/min
• B. 70 beats/min
• C. 90 beats/min
• D. 100 beats/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is an indicator to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication that affects the heart, and in pediatric patients, monitoring the pulse rate is crucial due to the risk of bradycardia (slow heart rate) as a potential side effect. In this case, an apical pulse of 90 beats/min or lower indicates a heart rate that may be too slow for a child of this age, warranting the withholding of digoxin and prompt notification of the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are not within the critical range specified for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child and would not necessitate withholding the medication.

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