Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a child with suspected nephrotic syndrome, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Edema
• C. Hypertension
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased glomerular permeability leading to the loss of proteins, particularly albumin, in the urine. This results in decreased oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting into the interstitial spaces and causing edema. Jaundice (Choice A) is not a typical clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (Choice C) is more commonly associated with conditions like glomerulonephritis. Polyuria (Choice D) is not a primary symptom of nephrotic syndrome; instead, patients may have reduced urine output due to fluid retention from edema.

2. A 6-year-old child comes to the school nurse reporting a sore throat, and the nurse verifies that the child has a fever and a red, inflamed throat. When a parent of the child arrives at school to take the child home, the nurse urges the parent to seek treatment. The nurse is aware that the causative agent may be beta-hemolytic streptococcus, and the illness may progress to inflamed joints and an infection in the heart. What illness is of most concern to the nurse?

• A. Tetanus
• B. Influenza
• C. Scarlet fever
• D. Rheumatic fever

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rheumatic fever is the most concerning illness in this case. It can develop as a complication of untreated strep throat caused by beta-hemolytic streptococcus. If not properly treated, rheumatic fever can lead to serious complications such as inflamed joints and heart infections. Tetanus is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium tetani bacteria and is not related to the symptoms described in the scenario. Influenza is a viral respiratory illness and does not typically lead to rheumatic fever. While scarlet fever is also caused by streptococcus bacteria, in this case, the symptoms described are more indicative of rheumatic fever than scarlet fever.

3. A parent asks a nurse how to tell the difference between measles (rubeola) and German measles (rubella). What should the nurse tell the parent about rubeola that is different from rubella?

• A. High fever and Koplik spots
• B. Rash on the trunk with pruritus
• C. Nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps
• D. Characteristics of a cold, followed by a rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'High fever and Koplik spots.' Rubeola (measles) is characterized by a high fever and the presence of Koplik spots, which are not seen in rubella (German measles). Choice B, rash on the trunk with pruritus, is more indicative of rubella. Choice C, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps, are not specific to either rubeola or rubella. Choice D, characteristics of a cold followed by a rash, is not a typical presentation of rubeola or rubella.

4. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Rebound tenderness
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.

5. What is the appropriate therapeutic management for children with Hirschsprung disease?

• A. daily enemas
• B. low-fiber diet
• C. permanent colostomy
• D. surgical removal of the affected section of bowel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: surgical removal of the affected section of bowel. Hirschsprung disease is characterized by a segment of the colon lacking nerve cells, leading to obstruction. The definitive treatment involves surgically removing the affected segment, followed by a pull-through procedure to restore normal bowel continuity. Daily enemas (choice A) are not the primary treatment for Hirschsprung disease. While dietary adjustments may be advised, a low-fiber diet (choice B) alone is not curative for this condition. A permanent colostomy (choice C) is considered a last resort if surgical interventions fail or in severe cases, but it is not the initial therapeutic approach for managing Hirschsprung disease.

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