Nursing Elites

1. A young adult male with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the psychiatric unit for detoxification. He is agitated, sweating, and reports seeing bugs crawling on the walls. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Reassure the client that the bugs are not real.
• B. Administer the prescribed benzodiazepine.
• C. Place the client in a quiet, dark room.
• D. Encourage the client to express his feelings.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the prescribed benzodiazepine. This intervention helps manage the client's agitation and hallucinations, which are common symptoms during detoxification from substances. Reassuring the client that the bugs are not real (Choice A) may not be effective in addressing the underlying causes of the hallucinations. Placing the client in a quiet, dark room (Choice C) may help reduce sensory stimulation but does not directly address the client's symptoms. Encouraging the client to express his feelings (Choice D) is important for therapeutic communication but may not be the priority when the client is experiencing severe agitation and hallucinations.

2. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to breathe slowly and deeply.
• B. Ask the client to describe the sensations they are experiencing.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on a calming image.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.

3. A 65-year-old female client complains to the nurse that recently she has been hearing voices. What question should the nurse ask this client first?

• A. Do you have problems with hallucinations?
• B. Are you ever alone when you hear the voices?
• C. Has anyone in your family had hearing problems?
• D. Do you see things that others cannot see?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should first ask if the client is ever alone when she hears the voices. This question helps differentiate between potential auditory hallucinations and other causes like hearing loss. Choice A is not the best first question as it assumes the client is experiencing hallucinations without exploring other possibilities. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate concern of hearing voices. Choice D pertains to visual hallucinations which are not described in the client's complaint of hearing voices.

4. A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?

• A. Inability to be mobile
• B. Isolating self from others
• C. Inability to tolerate activity
• D. Concern about body persona

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with a leg amputation being upset about his appearance is most closely associated with concerns about body image and self-perception. This individual may be worried about how others perceive them, impacting their self-esteem and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary psychosocial issue in this scenario is related to body image and self-perception, not mobility, social isolation, or activity tolerance.

5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

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