Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?

• A. My mouth feels like cotton.
• B. That medication gives me indigestion.
• C. This pill gives me diarrhea.
• D. My urine looks pink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.

2. A client is preparing to attend a Gamblers Anonymous meeting for the first time. The prototype used by this group is the 12-step program developed by Alcoholics Anonymous. Number in order of priority how the steps would be addressed.

• A. Admitting to oneself and to another human being the exact nature of one's wrongs
• B. Acknowledging that one is entirely ready to have his or her defects of character removed
• C. Admitting that oneself is powerless over gambling and that one's life has become unmanageable
• D. Making an effort to practice the 12-step principles in all affairs, and to carry out this message to other compulsive gamblers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct order of addressing the 12-step program typically begins with admitting powerlessness over the addiction and recognizing the unmanageability of one's life (Choice C). Following this, individuals move towards acknowledging their wrongs and sharing them with others (Choice A), then being ready to work on changing their character defects (Choice B), and finally, integrating the 12-step principles into their daily lives and helping others (Choice D). Choices A, B, and C are important steps in the program but come after admitting powerlessness and unmanageability, which is why Choice D is the correct answer.

3. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

• A. Orient the client to the time, place, and person.
• B. Tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her.
• C. Remind the client that her mother is no longer living.
• D. Explain the seriousness of her injury and need for hospitalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her. Providing reassurance and presence is more therapeutic in dealing with a client who has advanced dementia and is expressing a desire to go home and be with her mother. Option A might not be effective as continuously orienting the client may not alleviate her distress. Option C, reminding the client that her mother is no longer living, can be distressing and may not be appropriate in this situation. Option D, explaining the seriousness of the injury and need for hospitalization, is not the best response as it does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.

4. A nurse working on a mental health unit receives a community call from a person who is tearful and states, 'I just feel so nervous all of the time. I don't know what to do about my problems. I haven't been able to sleep at night and have hardly eaten for the past 3 or 4 days.' The nurse should initiate a referral based on which assessment?

• A. Altered thought processes.
• B. Moderate levels of anxiety.
• C. Inadequate social support.
• D. Altered health maintenance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should initiate a referral based on moderate levels of anxiety (B) as the client reports feeling nervous all the time, sleep disturbances, poor appetite, and difficulty solving problems. These symptoms are indicative of significant anxiety levels. The client does not mention symptoms related to altered thought processes (A) or inadequate social support (C). There is insufficient information to suggest altered health maintenance (D) as a reason for referral in this scenario.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue the medication and monitor for worsening symptoms.
• B. Administer the next dose of haloperidol with food.
• C. Report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of haloperidol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

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