Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving oxytocin by continuous IV infusion for labor induction. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes.
• B. Maintain the client in a supine position.
• C. Titrate the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min.
• D. Limit IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the infusion rate every 30 to 60 minutes. This approach allows for the careful monitoring and adjustment of oxytocin administration during labor induction. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position can decrease blood flow to the placenta and compromise fetal oxygenation. Choice C is incorrect as titrating the infusion rate by 4 milliunits/min is not a standard practice for oxytocin administration. Choice D is incorrect as limiting IV intake to 4 L per 24 hours is not specifically related to the administration of oxytocin for labor induction.

2. In the prenatal record, the nurse should record for the pregnant client who has a 3-year-old child at home, a term birth, a miscarriage at 10 weeks’ gestation, and a set of twins who died within 24 hours:

• A. Gravida 2, para 1.
• B. Gravida 3, para 3.
• C. Gravida 4, para 2.
• D. Gravida 5, para 4.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gravida 4, para 2.' Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. In this case, the client has been pregnant a total of 4 times, so gravida is 4. Para is the number of pregnancies that have reached viability, which is 2 in this case. The client has had a term birth and a set of twins who died within 24 hours, totaling 2 pregnancies that reached viability. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the client's obstetric history based on the information provided.

3. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Review the client's previous blood pressures in the chart.
• B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
• C. Observe and time the client's contractions.
• D. Examine the client for pedal edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.

4. Which of the following statements is true of a sperm cell?

• A. A sperm cell is significantly larger than an egg cell.
• B. A sperm cell contains two Y chromosomes.
• C. A sperm cell travels randomly inside a woman’s reproductive tract.
• D. A sperm cell is one of the smallest types of cells in the body.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sperm cell is indeed one of the smallest cells in the human body, much smaller than an egg cell. Choice A is incorrect as sperm cells are much smaller than egg cells. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not two Y chromosomes. Choice C is incorrect since sperm cells move in a purposeful manner guided by various factors within a woman's reproductive tract, not randomly.

5. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to void.
• D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

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