HESI LPN
HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing
1. The parents of a child who has been diagnosed with sickle cell anemia ask why their child experiences pain. What is the most likely cause of the pain?
- A. Inflammation of the vessels
- B. Obstructed blood flow
- C. Overhydration
- D. Stress-related headaches
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obstructed blood flow. In sickle cell anemia, the sickle-shaped red blood cells can clump together, obstructing blood flow in the vessels. This obstruction leads to tissue hypoxia (lack of oxygen) and necrosis, causing pain. Choice A, inflammation of the vessels, is not the primary cause of pain in sickle cell anemia. Choice C, overhydration, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia. Choice D, stress-related headaches, is not a characteristic symptom of sickle cell anemia.
2. Methotrexate is prescribed for a client with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) who is also taking aspirin. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide as to why a second medication has been added?
- A. Methotrexate slows the disease progression while aspirin controls the symptoms.
- B. Methotrexate helps to reduce the side effects of aspirin.
- C. Methotrexate has fewer harmful side effects than aspirin.
- D. Methotrexate enhances the effect of aspirin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) that slows the progression of rheumatoid arthritis (RA), while aspirin helps control symptoms such as pain and inflammation. Therefore, the combination of methotrexate and aspirin is beneficial in managing RA by addressing both disease progression and symptom control. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not added to reduce the side effects of aspirin, has different side effects compared to aspirin, and does not enhance the effect of aspirin.
3. An overweight, young adult male who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for a hernia repair. He tells the nurse that he is feeling very weak and jittery. Which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)
- A. Check his fingerstick glucose
- B. Assess his skin temperature and moisture
- C. Measure his pulse and BP
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is a young adult male with type 2 diabetes mellitus admitted for a hernia repair who is experiencing weakness and jitteriness. Checking his fingerstick glucose is crucial to assess his blood sugar levels, which can directly impact his symptoms. Assessing his skin temperature and moisture is important to evaluate his peripheral circulation and hydration status. Measuring his pulse and blood pressure helps in gauging his cardiovascular status. Therefore, all the actions mentioned in choices A, B, and C are appropriate for the nurse to implement in this situation to identify the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all these actions are necessary for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's condition. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect individually as they each address different aspects of the patient's condition, and a holistic approach is needed to provide optimal care in this situation.
4. Twelve hours following a unilateral total knee replacement, a client reports being unable to sleep because of severe incisional pain. What is the best initial nursing action?
- A. Administer a prescribed sedative.
- B. Reposition the client for comfort.
- C. Apply ice packs to the surgical site.
- D. Instruct the client in the use of the prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client in the use of the PCA pump is the best initial nursing action for managing severe incisional pain after knee replacement surgery. The PCA pump allows the client to self-administer pain medication effectively, promoting better pain management. Administering a sedative may mask the pain temporarily but doesn't address the root cause. Repositioning the client for comfort or applying ice packs may provide some relief but doesn't address the need for effective pain control as the PCA pump does.
5. The nurse caring for a hospitalized older client with a left hip fracture as a result of a fall at home notices different assessment findings. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Pain rated 7/10 on the pain scale.
- B. Mild swelling at the fracture site.
- C. Small amount of bleeding from the surgical site.
- D. Left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A left extremity capillary refill greater than 5 seconds indicates poor blood flow to the extremity, which is a sign of compromised circulation. This finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Choices A, B, and C are important assessments but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention like the delayed capillary refill in choice D.
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