the healthcare provider prescribes cytovene 375 mg every 12 hours to infuse over 90 minutes the pharmacy delivers cytovene 375 mg in a 150 ml iv bag h
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HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing

1. The healthcare provider prescribes Cytovene 375 mg every 12 hours to infuse over 90 minutes. The pharmacy delivers Cytovene 375 mg in a 150 mL IV bag. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To infuse 150 mL over 90 minutes, the pump should be set to 100 ml/hour (150 mL / 1.5 hours). This rate ensures that the medication is delivered at the proper rate as prescribed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the volume of the IV bag and the infusion duration provided in the question.

2. While assessing a client with degenerative joint disease, the nurse observes Heberden's nodes, large prominences on the client's fingers that are reddened. The client reports that the nodes are painful. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Discussing approaches to chronic pain control is the most appropriate action in this situation as it helps the client manage the chronic pain associated with Heberden's nodes. Reviewing the client's dietary intake of high protein foods (Choice A) is not directly related to managing the pain caused by Heberden's nodes. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there are urgent complications. Assessing the client's radial pulses and capillary refill time (Choice D) is important but not the priority in addressing the client's reported pain and the presence of Heberden's nodes.

3. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

5. When caring for a 7-week-old infant with hypothyroidism, the nurse explains that the prevention of what complication is dependent on the administration of oral thyroid replacement therapy and is critical for the child?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cognitive impairment. The treatment of choice for congenital and acquired hypothyroidism is oral thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Prompt treatment is especially critical in the infant with congenital hypothyroidism to avoid permanent cognitive impairment. Excessive growth (Choice A) is not a common complication of hypothyroidism in infants. Damage to the nervous system (Choice C) and damage to the urinary system (Choice D) are not typically associated with untreated hypothyroidism in infants.

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