Nursing Elites

1. A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because she thinks she is in labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart rate is 140 beats per minute and contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15 minutes. Which assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not in labor at this time?

• A. Membranes are intact.
• B. 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities.
• C. Contractions decrease with walking.
• D. Cervical dilation is 1 centimeter.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Contractions that decrease with walking are typically indicative of false labor, as true labor contractions tend to intensify with activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A) Intact membranes are a normal finding and do not confirm the absence of labor. B) 2+ pitting edema in lower extremities is a sign of fluid retention and not directly related to labor status. D) Cervical dilation of 1 centimeter indicates some cervical changes, but it alone does not confirm active labor.

2. What additional assessment is required for the postoperative care of a pregnant woman who undergoes abdominal surgery for appendicitis?

• A. Intake and output (I&O) and intravenous (IV) site.
• B. Signs and symptoms of infection.
• C. Vital signs and incision.
• D. Fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct additional assessment for postoperative care of a pregnant woman requiring abdominal surgery for appendicitis is monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) and uterine activity. This is crucial due to the presence of the fetus. Continuous fetal and uterine monitoring should be prioritized to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. While assessing I&O levels and the IV site are common postoperative care procedures, they are not specific to the unique needs of a pregnant woman. Evaluating for signs and symptoms of infection is important for any postoperative patient but is not the additional assessment required specifically for a pregnant woman in this scenario. Routine vital signs and incision evaluation are standard components of postoperative care but do not address the specific needs related to the fetus and the uterus in this case.

3. _________ is self-propulsion.

• A. Mitosis
• B. Meiosis
• C. Motility
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Motility.' Motility refers to the ability of cells or organisms to move by themselves, often through the use of specialized structures like flagella or cilia. Mitosis (Choice A) and Meiosis (Choice B) are processes related to cell division and genetic recombination, respectively, not self-propulsion. Mutation (Choice D) refers to changes in the DNA sequence and is not related to self-propulsion.

4. A nurse is developing an educational program about hemolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hemolytic disease?

• A. The mother is Rh positive, and the father is Rh negative
• B. The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive
• C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive
• D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive.' Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, leading to Rh incompatibility. In this scenario, the mother produces antibodies against the Rh antigen present in the fetus, which can result in hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells. Choices A, C, and D do not describe the Rh incompatibility that leads to hemolytic disease in newborns. Therefore, they are incorrect.

5. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

Similar Questions