Nursing Elites

1. A woman at 24-weeks gestation who has fever, body aches, and has been coughing for the last 5 days is sent to the hospital with admission prescriptions for H1N1 influenza. Which action has the highest priority?

• A. Administer Ringer's Lactate IV 125ml/8 hours
• B. Obtain specimens for cultures
• C. Assign a private room
• D. Monitor vital signs q4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assigning a private room has the highest priority in this scenario. It helps prevent the spread of H1N1 influenza to other patients and protects both the patient and others from potential infection. Obtaining specimens for cultures and monitoring vital signs are important but do not address the immediate need to prevent the spread of the virus. Administering Ringer's Lactate IV is not the priority in this case as it does not directly address the infectious nature of the condition.

2. When assessing a client's blood pressure and determining an auscultatory gap, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Compare the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure
• B. Assess the client for lightheadedness upon standing
• C. Determine if an automated blood pressure reading is consistent with the manual reading
• D. Observe for changes in blood pressure between lying and sitting positions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an auscultatory gap is present, comparing the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure is crucial. This helps to accurately measure blood pressure and detect any discrepancies caused by the gap. Assessing for lightheadedness upon standing (choice B) is unrelated to addressing an auscultatory gap. Checking the consistency between automated and manual blood pressure readings (choice C) is important for validation but not specifically for managing an auscultatory gap. Observing blood pressure changes between lying and sitting positions (choice D) is relevant for orthostatic hypotension assessment but not for dealing with an auscultatory gap.

3. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the azithromycin right after breakfast
• B. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the azithromycin
• C. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating
• D. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the azithromycin the next day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.

4. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
• B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
• C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
• D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.

5. A male client with angina pectoris is being discharged from the hospital. What instructions should the nurse plan to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Engage in physical exercise before eating to help decrease cholesterol levels.
• B. Avoid walking briskly in cold weather to prevent a decrease in cardiac output.
• C. Keep nitroglycerin in a light-colored plastic bottle and readily available.
• D. Avoid all isometric exercises, but walk regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep nitroglycerin in a light-colored container and readily available. Nitroglycerin should be protected from light to maintain its effectiveness. Option A is incorrect because physical exercise immediately before eating can trigger angina. Option B is incorrect as cold weather can exacerbate angina symptoms. Option D is incorrect as isometric exercises can increase the workload on the heart, which is not recommended for individuals with angina.

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