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1. The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is two days post knee surgery and describes pain at a “4†on a 1 to 10 scale
- B. A client who is one day post bowel resection with no bowel sounds
- C. A client who is 8 hours post appendectomy with urinary output of 480 ml
- D. A client who was admitted with severe abdominal pain and suddenly has no pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden absence of pain in a client with severe abdominal pain may indicate a serious condition such as internal bleeding. This sudden change in pain status requires immediate assessment to rule out any life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an acute change in the client's condition that would necessitate immediate attention compared to sudden pain relief in a client with severe abdominal pain.
2. An adult male is admitted to the psychiatric unit from the emergency department because he is in the manic disorder. He has lost 10 pounds in the last two weeks and has not bathed in a week because he has been “trying to start a new business†and is “too busy to eat.†He is alert and oriented to time, place and person, but not situation. Which nursing diagnosis has the greatest priority?
- A. Self-care deficit
- B. Disturbed sleep pattern
- C. Disturbed thought processes
- D. Imbalanced nutrition
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Imbalanced nutrition is the priority in this case as the patient has lost a significant amount of weight and is neglecting self-care, such as bathing and eating properly. The weight loss indicates a serious issue that needs immediate attention to prevent further health complications. While self-care deficit, disturbed sleep pattern, and disturbed thought processes are also concerns for this patient, addressing the imbalanced nutrition takes precedence due to the potential impact on the patient's physical health. Neglecting proper nutrition can lead to serious complications, so it is crucial to address this issue first.
3. The nurse is caring for a laboring 22-year-old primigravida following administration of regional anesthesia. In planning care for this client, what nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach
- B. Teaching the client how to push to decrease the length of the second stage of labor
- C. Timing and recording uterine contractions
- D. Positioning the client for proper distribution of anesthesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a laboring client following administration of regional anesthesia is to position the client for proper distribution of anesthesia. Proper positioning ensures effective pain management during labor, optimizing the effects of the regional anesthesia. While raising the side rails and placing the call bell within reach (choice A) is important for safety, teaching the client how to push (choice B) and timing and recording uterine contractions (choice C) are vital aspects of care but are not the highest priority immediately after administering regional anesthesia.
4. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?
- A. Right hand
- B. Right forearm
- C. Left hand
- D. Right subclavian
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.
5. While eating at a restaurant, a gravid woman begins to choke and is unable to speak. What action should the nurse who witnesses the event take?
- A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt
- B. The Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts
- C. The Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts
- D. Call 911 immediately then begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a pregnant woman is choking and unable to speak is to perform the Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts. This technique is recommended for a pregnant woman to prevent harm to the fetus. Option A, cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt, is not indicated for a choking episode. Option B, the Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts, can potentially harm the gravid uterus. Option D, calling 911 immediately before providing assistance, can lead to a delay in addressing the immediate choking emergency.
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