Nursing Elites

1. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

2. The charge nurse is making assignments for clients on an endocrine unit. Which client is best to assign to a new graduate nurse?

• A. A female adult with hyperthyroidism who is returning to the unit after a thyroidectomy
• B. A male adult with Cushing's syndrome who reports a headache and visual disturbances
• C. An older man with Addison's disease who is diaphoretic and has hand tremors
• D. A perimenopausal woman with Graves' disease who is nervous and has exophthalmos

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A new graduate nurse can manage the care of a stable client returning from a thyroidectomy. Choice B is not suitable for a new graduate nurse as it involves complex symptoms of Cushing's syndrome that require more experience and knowledge. Choice C presents a client with acute manifestations of Addison's disease, which may be challenging for a new graduate nurse. Choice D involves a client with Graves' disease experiencing nervousness and exophthalmos, which also require a higher level of expertise to manage effectively.

3. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only
• B. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube
• D. Offer the infant Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.

4. An older adult resident of a long-term care facility has a 5-year history of hypertension. The client has a headache and rates the pain 5 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. The client’s blood pressure is currently 142/89. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer the scheduled daily dose of lisinopril.
• B. Assess the client for postural hypotension.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Provide a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's blood pressure of 142/89 is within an acceptable range for someone with a history of hypertension. The client's headache with a pain rating of 5 does not warrant an immediate notification to the healthcare provider. Administering the scheduled dose of lisinopril is appropriate to manage the client's hypertension. Assessing the client for postural hypotension is relevant due to the client's age and hypertension history. Providing a PRN dose of acetaminophen for the headache is not necessary at this point as the pain level is moderate and can be managed with other interventions.

5. After learning that she has terminal pancreatic cancer, a female client becomes very angry and says to the nurse, 'God has abandoned me. What did I do to deserve this?' Based on this response, the nurse decides to include which nursing problem in the client’s plan of care?

• A. Ineffective coping
• B. Spiritual distress
• C. Acute pain
• D. Complicated grieving

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s expression of feeling abandoned by God indicates spiritual distress, which is a significant issue that needs to be addressed in the plan of care. The individual is questioning their faith and seeking answers in a higher power, which aligns with spiritual distress. Choices A, C, and D are not as directly related to the client's current emotional and spiritual struggle. Ineffective coping may be a consequence of spiritual distress, acute pain is not the primary concern in this scenario, and complicated grieving is premature as the client is still processing the diagnosis and seeking meaning.

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