Nursing Elites

1. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

2. When preparing the client for a thoracentesis, which action is essential for the nurse to take?

• A. Encourage the client to cough during the procedure
• B. Ask the client to void prior to the procedure
• C. Have the client lie in the prone position
• D. Determine if chest x-rays have been completed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The essential action for the nurse to take when preparing a client for a thoracentesis is to ask the client to void prior to the procedure. This step is crucial as it helps prevent discomfort and reduces the risk of accidental injury. Encouraging the client to cough during the procedure (Choice A) is inappropriate as it can affect the accuracy of the thoracentesis. Having the client lie in the prone position (Choice C) is incorrect; the procedure is typically performed with the client sitting upright or slightly leaning forward. While determining if chest x-rays have been completed (Choice D) is important, ensuring the client has emptied their bladder is more critical for their comfort and safety during the procedure.

3. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
• B. Weight the client every morning
• C. Maintain accurate intake and output
• D. Administer prescribed diuretic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

4. When gathering subjective data from a client, what intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Listen attentively
• B. Establish rapport
• C. List problems
• D. Clarify inferences

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing rapport is the initial step the nurse should take when gathering subjective data from a client. Building trust and a good relationship with the client creates an environment where the client feels comfortable sharing accurate and honest information. Listening attentively is important but should come after rapport is established to enhance active listening. Listing problems and clarifying inferences are actions that occur later in the assessment process, after the nurse has established a good rapport and obtained a comprehensive understanding of the client's perspective. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

5. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

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