Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

• A. Encourage the client's family to visit more often
• B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
• D. Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.

2. A female client tells the clinic nurse that she has doubts about binge eating but cannot make herself vomit after meals. Which action by the nurse provides data to support the suspected diagnosis of bulimia?

• A. Ask the client to complete a food diary for the last 3 days
• B. Review the client’s lab data to determine her TSH, T3, and T4 levels
• C. Interview the client about her use of laxatives and diuretics
• D. Encourage the client to describe her daily exercise regimen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inquiring about laxative and diuretic use helps confirm bulimia as these are common behaviors associated with the disorder. Asking the client to complete a food diary (Choice A) may provide information on eating patterns but does not directly support the diagnosis of bulimia. Reviewing lab data (Choice B) for thyroid function is not specific to bulimia. Encouraging the client to describe her exercise regimen (Choice D) may be relevant for overall health assessment but does not specifically address bulimia symptoms.

3. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?

• A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
• B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
• C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
• D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.

4. The nurse is caring for a newborn who arrives in the nursery following a precipitous birth on the way to the hospital. A drug screen of the mother reveals the presence of cocaine metabolites. The infant has a heart rate of 175 beats/minute, cries continuously, is irritable, and is hyperreactive to stimuli. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this infant’s plan of care?

• A. Initiate infant sepsis protocol
• B. Implement seizure precautions
• C. Refer to protective child services
• D. Formula feed every 3 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The infant's symptoms, such as a high heart rate, continuous crying, irritability, and hyperreactivity, suggest possible withdrawal effects due to maternal cocaine use. These symptoms can lead to seizures. Therefore, the priority intervention is to implement seizure precautions to ensure the infant's safety. Initiating the infant sepsis protocol is not indicated based on the symptoms presented. Referring to protective child services is important but not the immediate priority. Formula feeding every 3 hours is a routine care measure but does not address the urgent need to prevent potential seizures.

5. The nurse assesses a 5-year-old child who has been experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting. The nurse notices that the child is lethargic and has a positive Brudzinski sign. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Perform a complete neurological examination
• B. Measure the child’s head circumference
• C. Check the child’s blood glucose level
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. The presence of lethargy and a positive Brudzinski sign in a child experiencing frequent headaches and vomiting may indicate a serious condition like meningitis. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and initiation of appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while a neurological examination may be necessary, it is not the priority when a potentially serious condition like meningitis is suspected. Choice B is incorrect as measuring the child's head circumference is not the most immediate action to take in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as checking the child's blood glucose level, although important in some cases, is not the priority when a child presents with symptoms suggestive of meningitis.

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