HESI LPN
HESI CAT
1. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?
- A. Encourage the client's family to visit more often
- B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker
- C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
- D. Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.
2. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
- B. Gather additional information about the client’s family history for all types of cancer.
- C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
- D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, “What do you think you’re doing?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. “I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.”
- B. “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.”
- C. “Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?”
- D. “You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide a relevant explanation to the client. Choice B, “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet,” is the best answer because it directly addresses the client's concern about the purpose of the medication. By explaining the potential benefit of the injection, the nurse can alleviate the client's anxiety and increase their cooperation during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's question and may escalate the situation. Choice C is not suitable as it deviates from addressing the client's immediate query. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to specifically address the client's concern regarding the medication's purpose.
4. Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer regular insulin per sliding scale
- B. Cancel the client's dinner tray
- C. Give the client 4 ounces (120 mL) of orange juice
- D. Administer the next scheduled dose of metformin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this case, the nurse should implement the intervention of administering regular insulin per sliding scale. High blood sugar levels, as indicated by a reading of 325 mg/dL, require insulin administration to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia. Canceling the client's dinner tray (choice B) would not address the immediate need to lower the blood sugar level. Giving the client orange juice (choice C) might further increase the blood sugar level as it contains sugar. Administering the next scheduled dose of metformin (choice D) is not appropriate as metformin is not typically used for acute management of high blood sugar levels.
5. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?
- A. 18
- B. 27
- C. 36
- D. 45
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access