Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and non-communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

• A. Encourage the client's family to visit more often
• B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
• D. Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Engaging the client in a non-threatening conversation is crucial as it can help build trust and provide support, addressing the client's withdrawal. This intervention focuses on establishing a therapeutic relationship and giving the client an opportunity to express their feelings. Choices A, B, and C do not directly target the client's need for communication and may not address the underlying issues contributing to her withdrawal. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice A) may add pressure or discomfort to the client. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not address the client's immediate need for communication. Encouraging the client to participate in group activities (Choice C) may be overwhelming for the client and not address her withdrawal directly.

2. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
• B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
• C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
• D. Review the client’s current list of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, “What do you think you’re doing?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. “I cannot give you this medication until you calm down.”
• B. “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet.”
• C. “Would you prefer to learn to administer your own shot?”
• D. “You will feel calmer and less jittery after this shot.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to provide a relevant explanation to the client. Choice B, “This shot will help relieve the pain in your feet,” is the best answer because it directly addresses the client's concern about the purpose of the medication. By explaining the potential benefit of the injection, the nurse can alleviate the client's anxiety and increase their cooperation during the procedure. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's question and may escalate the situation. Choice C is not suitable as it deviates from addressing the client's immediate query. Choice D is incorrect because it fails to specifically address the client's concern regarding the medication's purpose.

4. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client? (Enter numeric value only)

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer, multiply the dose per administration (0.4 mg) by the maximum number of doses allowed (5 doses): 0.4 mg/dose * 5 doses = 2 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer a maximum dosage of 2 mg to the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

5. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

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