Nursing Elites

1. The public health nurse received funding to initiate a primary prevention program in the community. Which program best fits the nurse’s proposal?

• A. Case management and screening for clients with HIV.
• B. Regional relocation center for earthquake victims.
• C. Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women.
• D. Lead screening for children in low-income housing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women. This option aligns with primary prevention by preventing deficiencies before they occur, which is a key aspect of primary prevention. Providing vitamin supplements to high-risk pregnant women can help prevent birth defects and complications. Choices A, B, and D do not align with primary prevention strategies. Case management and screening for clients with HIV (Choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection and management. A regional relocation center for earthquake victims (Choice B) is focused on addressing the aftermath of a disaster rather than preventing it. Lead screening for children in low-income housing (Choice D) is more about early detection and intervention rather than primary prevention.

2. In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

• A. Signs a no-self-harm contract
• B. Sleep for at least 6 hours nightly
• C. Attends group therapy every day
• D. Verbalizes a positive self-image

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client’s immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.

3. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

• A. Moist mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

4. After receiving report, which client should the nurse assess last?

• A. An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac
• B. An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed
• C. An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube
• D. An adult client with rectal tube draining clear pale red liquid drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the client with rectal tube drainage of clear pale red liquid is likely to be the least urgent since this is a normal post-operative finding. Clear pale red liquid drainage from a rectal tube is typically not a cause for immediate concern. Choices A, B, and C present clients with concerning signs that may require more immediate assessment and intervention. A client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing may indicate active bleeding, a client with a compressed Jackson-Pratt drain bulb may have inadequate drainage resulting in complications, and a client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube may be experiencing gastrointestinal issues that need prompt evaluation.

5. In what order should the nurse assess a lethargic one-hour-old infant brought to the nursery?

• A. Heel stick
• B. Respirations
• C. Heart rate
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a lethargic one-hour-old infant, the nurse should prioritize assessing the most critical parameters first. Temperature and heart rate are vital signs that provide immediate information about the infant's well-being. Therefore, the correct order of assessment should be temperature, heart rate, respirations, and then a heel stick. Temperature is crucial to determine if the infant is hypothermic or hyperthermic, while heart rate gives insight into the circulatory system's function. Respirations follow to evaluate the infant's breathing pattern. Lastly, the heel stick is important for certain screenings but is not as urgent as evaluating temperature and heart rate in a lethargic infant.

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