Nursing Elites

1. The public health nurse received funding to initiate a primary prevention program in the community. Which program best fits the nurse’s proposal?

• A. Case management and screening for clients with HIV.
• B. Regional relocation center for earthquake victims.
• C. Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women.
• D. Lead screening for children in low-income housing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women. This option aligns with primary prevention by preventing deficiencies before they occur, which is a key aspect of primary prevention. Providing vitamin supplements to high-risk pregnant women can help prevent birth defects and complications. Choices A, B, and D do not align with primary prevention strategies. Case management and screening for clients with HIV (Choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection and management. A regional relocation center for earthquake victims (Choice B) is focused on addressing the aftermath of a disaster rather than preventing it. Lead screening for children in low-income housing (Choice D) is more about early detection and intervention rather than primary prevention.

2. A child with leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis, 'altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, vomiting' is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?

• A. Allow the child to eat foods desired and tolerated
• B. Restrict foods brought from fast food restaurants
• C. Recommend eating the same foods as siblings eat at home
• D. Encourage a variety of large portions of food at every meal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the child to choose foods can help improve intake and reduce nausea. Choice A is the correct intervention as it empowers the child to select foods they desire and can tolerate, which is crucial in ensuring adequate nutrition intake. Choice B is incorrect because restricting certain foods can further limit the child's options and may not address the underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't consider the specific needs and preferences of the child with altered nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging large portions of food at every meal may be overwhelming for a child experiencing anorexia, nausea, and vomiting.

3. What action should the nurse implement for a female client with cancer who has a good appetite but experiences nausea whenever she smells food cooking?

• A. Encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside
• B. Advise the client to replace cooked foods with a variety of different nutritional supplements
• C. Assess the client’s mucus membranes and report the findings to the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client to take an antiemetic before every meal to prevent excessive vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside. This strategy can help reduce the smell of cooking food and potentially alleviate the client's nausea triggered by food smells. Assessing the client's mucus membranes (choice C) is not directly related to the client's symptom of nausea triggered by food smells. Instructing the client to take an antiemetic before every meal (choice D) may not address the root cause of the issue, which is the smell of cooking food. Advising the client to replace cooked foods with nutritional supplements (choice B) does not address the immediate problem of food odors triggering nausea.

4. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse that he is going to join a gym and start working out. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Recent serum cholesterol levels
• B. Presence of calf pain during exercise
• C. Average weight gain or loss in the last year
• D. Exercise tolerance test with EKG results

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is the presence of calf pain during exercise. Calf pain during exercise could indicate peripheral vascular issues, such as peripheral artery disease, which is crucial to address before starting an exercise program. High cholesterol levels (choice A) may be important but are not as immediately relevant as assessing for peripheral vascular issues. Average weight gain or loss (choice C) may provide some insight into the patient's overall health status but is not as critical as assessing for potential vascular complications. An exercise tolerance test with EKG results (choice D) may be valuable in assessing cardiovascular fitness but is not as crucial as evaluating for peripheral vascular issues given the patient's symptoms.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

Similar Questions