Nursing Elites

1. A 65-year-old female client complains to the nurse that recently she has been hearing voices. What question should the nurse ask this client first?

• A. Do you have problems with hallucinations?
• B. Are you ever alone when you hear the voices?
• C. Has anyone in your family had hearing problems?
• D. Do you see things that others cannot see?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should first ask if the client is ever alone when she hears the voices. This question helps differentiate between potential auditory hallucinations and other causes like hearing loss. Choice A is not the best first question as it assumes the client is experiencing hallucinations without exploring other possibilities. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate concern of hearing voices. Choice D pertains to visual hallucinations which are not described in the client's complaint of hearing voices.

2. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

3. What is the most important goal of care for a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been taking the benzodiazepine alprazolam (Xanax) long-term? The client will:

• A. Describe a decrease in anxiety using a 1 to 10 anxiety scale.
• B. State the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication.
• C. Not experience dizziness, lightheadedness, or sedation.
• D. Attend scheduled individual and group therapy sessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The most important goal of care for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) taking alprazolam long-term is to ensure they understand the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication. Abruptly stopping benzodiazepines can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential complications. Choice A is not the most critical goal as the focus should be on the safe continuation of the medication. Choice C is important but not as crucial as preventing abrupt discontinuation. Choice D is beneficial for overall treatment but not the most important goal in this scenario.

4. At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Addiction is a chronic, incurable disease
• B. Tolerance to the effects of drugs causes feelings of depression
• C. Feelings of depression frequently lead to drug abuse and addiction
• D. Careful monitoring should be provided during withdrawal from the drugs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to teach the parents that their son will need monitoring and support during withdrawal to ensure that he does not attempt suicide. Option A is incorrect because addiction can be managed and treated effectively with appropriate interventions. Option B is incorrect as tolerance to drugs causing depression is not the primary concern in this scenario. Option C is incorrect as while depression can be a risk factor for drug abuse, in this case, the focus is on the son's safety during withdrawal.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Liver function tests.
• C. Blood glucose levels.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.

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