HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital. The employee states, “I can’t believe this. What should I do?” Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?
- A. Tell me what you think should be done.
- B. How serious was the collision?
- C. What do you think you should do?
- D. Call for transportation to the hospital.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a crisis situation where the female employee's child is involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide immediate practical assistance. Calling for transportation to the hospital ensures that the employee can quickly reach her child in need of urgent medical attention. The other options (A, B, and C) do not address the immediate need for assistance and may not provide the necessary support required in such a critical situation.
2. Which statement made by a patient prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) demonstrates that the medication education the patient received was effective? Select all that apply.
- A. I hope Wellbutrin will help my depression and also help me to finally quit smoking.
- B. I'm happy to hear that I won't need to worry too much about weight gain.
- C. It's okay to take Wellbutrin since I haven't had a seizure in 6 months.
- D. I need to be careful about driving since the medication could make me drowsy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. The patient expressing a desire for Wellbutrin to address both depression and smoking cessation indicates an understanding of the medication's dual benefits. This demonstrates effective medication education as the patient comprehends the drug's purposes. Choice B is incorrect because weight gain is a common side effect of bupropion, so the statement contradicts this fact. Choice C is incorrect as a history of seizures is a contraindication for bupropion, so this statement shows a misunderstanding of the medication's safety profile. Choice D is incorrect because bupropion is not typically associated with sedation, so the concern about drowsiness is not directly related to this medication.
3. An adolescent client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for self-harming behaviors. Which of the following is a priority nursing intervention?
- A. Assess the client’s suicidal ideation.
- B. Educate the client about healthy coping mechanisms.
- C. Encourage family therapy sessions.
- D. Provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for an adolescent admitted for self-harming behaviors is to provide a safe environment free of potential self-harm tools. This intervention aims to prevent immediate harm to the client. Assessing suicidal ideation is important but ensuring physical safety takes precedence. While educating about healthy coping mechanisms is crucial for long-term management, immediate safety is the priority. Family therapy sessions are beneficial for holistic care but are not the immediate priority when the client's safety is at risk.
4. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.
5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?
- A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
- B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
- C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
- D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access