the occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a mva and taken to the hospital t
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital. The employee states, “I can’t believe this. What should I do?” Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a crisis situation where the female employee's child is involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide immediate practical assistance. Calling for transportation to the hospital ensures that the employee can quickly reach her child in need of urgent medical attention. The other options (A, B, and C) do not address the immediate need for assistance and may not provide the necessary support required in such a critical situation.

2. A client is receiving substitution therapy during withdrawal from benzodiazepines. Which expected outcome statement has the highest priority when planning nursing care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced.' During benzodiazepine withdrawal, the priority is to manage symptoms such as CNS hyperactivity, which can include agitation, anxiety, and seizures. Substitution therapy aims to minimize these withdrawal symptoms by providing a safer alternative to the benzodiazepine. Options B, C, and D are not the highest priority during benzodiazepine withdrawal. Decreasing co-dependent behaviors, increasing the client's level of consciousness, and preventing cross-addiction are important aspects of care but are not as critical as managing the potentially severe CNS stimulation.

3. The RN is leading a group on the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which approach should the RN use during the working phase of group development?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the working phase of group development, the focus should be on discussing and applying new coping skills to promote progress. This helps group members to practice and implement the skills they have learned, leading to positive outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal during the working phase. While establishing rapport is important, it is more relevant during the initial orientation phase. Clarifying roles and responsibilities is important at the beginning of group formation, and helping clients identify areas of problem in their lives is often part of the exploration phase, not the working phase.

4. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

5. When developing a plan of care for a male client admitted with delirium tremens, who is dehydrated, experiencing auditory hallucinations, has a bruised, swollen tongue, and is confused, what action should the RN include to ensure the client is physiologically stable?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring vital signs is the priority action to ensure the physiological stability of a client with delirium tremens. In this scenario, the client's dehydration, confusion, and other symptoms necessitate close monitoring of vital signs to assess their condition accurately. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice A) is important for hydration but does not directly assess physiological stability. Keeping the room dark (Choice C) may help with hallucinations but is not the primary intervention for physiological stability. Applying ice to the tongue (Choice D) addresses a symptom but is less critical compared to monitoring vital signs in this situation.

Similar Questions

While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?
A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and lack of motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?
Which client statement suggests to the nurse that the client is using the defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?
What is the most appropriate intervention by the RN to address a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks to see if the door is locked and asks for reassurance?
A healthcare professional is assessing a client for symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which symptom should the healthcare professional expect to find?

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