the occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a mva and taken to the hospital t
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. The occupational health nurse is working with a female employee who was just notified that her child was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital. The employee states, “I can’t believe this. What should I do?” Which response is best for the nurse to provide in this crisis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a crisis situation where the female employee's child is involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVA) and taken to the hospital, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide immediate practical assistance. Calling for transportation to the hospital ensures that the employee can quickly reach her child in need of urgent medical attention. The other options (A, B, and C) do not address the immediate need for assistance and may not provide the necessary support required in such a critical situation.

2. While working with a male client at a community mental health center, the client reports hearing voices that tell him to get a knife from the kitchen and hurt himself. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial intervention for the RN to implement in this scenario is to prevent the client from accessing the kitchen where potential means of self-harm are available until the hallucination subsides. This immediate action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. While reporting the behavior to the client's case worker for further support is important, addressing the immediate risk of harm takes precedence. Assigning a UAP to stay with the client continually is valuable for ongoing monitoring but is secondary to ensuring immediate safety. Documenting the behavior in the client's record and notifying the healthcare provider are essential steps in the care process; however, they should follow actions taken to ensure the client's immediate safety.

3. A male client with schizophrenia tells the RN that he is being watched and that the television is speaking directly to him. Which response by the RN is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B is the correct response because it acknowledges the client's feelings and demonstrates empathy. By stating that the situation sounds frightening, the RN validates the client's experience without denying or reinforcing the delusion. This approach helps build rapport and trust with the client, which is essential in therapeutic communication. Options A and C are dismissive and may invalidate the client's experience, potentially worsening the trust relationship. Option D is confrontational and may make the client defensive, hindering effective communication and rapport-building.

4. While interviewing a client, the nurse takes notes to assist with accurate documentation later. Which statement is most accurate regarding note-taking during an interview?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an interview, note-taking can hinder the nurse’s ability to directly observe the client's nonverbal cues such as body language, facial expressions, and tone of voice. These nonverbal cues are crucial for understanding the client's emotions, feelings, and overall communication. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to strike a balance between note-taking for documentation purposes and actively observing the client's nonverbal communication to ensure a comprehensive assessment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because maintaining eye contact, enhancing the interview process with note-taking, and legal obligations of note-taking during an interview do not directly address the issue of limited observation of nonverbal communication while taking notes.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

Similar Questions

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A female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room during the admission assessment. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?
The healthcare professional is developing a discharge plan for a client recovering from alcohol withdrawal. Which instruction should be included in the client’s discharge teaching?
Which statement made by a patient prescribed bupropion (Wellbutrin) demonstrates that the medication education the patient received was effective? Select all that apply.
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