Nursing Elites

1. A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?

• A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Insertion of a chest tube
• C. Oxygen therapy
• D. Assisted ventilation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.

2. In planning for the nursing care of the sick person in the home, the major point that the nurse must keep in mind is:

• A. who will be responsible for the patient during the nurse's absence from the home
• B. economic level of the family
• C. the availability of the nearest hospital
• D. whether or not the patient is under a private physician

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because ensuring someone is responsible for the patient is crucial for continuous care. The presence of a caregiver during the nurse's absence ensures the patient's safety and well-being. Choice B, economic level of the family, is important but not the major point when planning nursing care in the home. Choice C, the availability of the nearest hospital, is significant but doesn't address the day-to-day care in the home. Choice D, whether or not the patient is under a private physician, is relevant but not as critical as ensuring someone is available to care for the patient at all times.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

4. Which client has the highest risk for developing community-acquired pneumonia?

• A. a 40-year-old first-grade teacher who works with underprivileged children
• B. a 75-year-old retired secretary with exercise-induced wheezing
• C. a 60-year-old homeless person who is an alcoholic and smokes
• D. a 35-year-old aerobics instructor who skips meals and eats only vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because homeless individuals who are alcoholics and smoke have a higher risk of developing community-acquired pneumonia due to factors like poor living conditions, compromised immune systems, and increased exposure to infections. Choice A is less likely as the teacher's profession, while involving contact with children, may not pose as high a risk as the factors in choice C. Choice B may have respiratory issues but does not have the same risk factors as choice C. Choice D, the aerobics instructor, may have a healthy lifestyle but skipping meals and a restrictive diet do not directly correlate with a higher risk of pneumonia compared to the risk factors in choice C.

5. The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?

• A. A male with a serum cholesterol level of 199 mg/dl.
• B. A female with a serum cholesterol level of 201 mg/dl.
• C. A male with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 200 mg/dl.
• D. A female with a low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level of 160 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.

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