a pre term baby develops nasal flaring cyanosis and diminished breath sounds on one side the providers diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax which pro
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Community Health HESI Test Bank

1. A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.

2. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. Botulism toxin is associated with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, which are consistent with the client's presentation. Ricin (Choice A) typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms. Sulfur mustard (Choice C) is a blistering agent causing skin, eye, and respiratory issues. Yersinia pestis (Choice D) is associated with the bubonic plague, presenting with fever, malaise, and buboes.

3. As a community organizer, the PHN facilitates the planning and implementation of program subjects in the community. In the light of the PHC approach, these programs/projects should be characterized by the following except:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of the PHC approach, programs should be characterized by being managed by community leaders/members (Choice A). This ensures community involvement and ownership. Programs should also be compatible with available resources (Choice C) to be sustainable and effective. Additionally, programs should be developmental in nature (Choice D), focusing on long-term improvements. Choice B is incorrect because programs should not be solely managed by non-government organizations; instead, they should be driven by the community to promote sustainability and empowerment.

4. What is the main focus of secondary prevention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.

5. Which intervention should the public health nurse implement to address one of the leading health indicators of Healthy People 2020?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Designing and implementing a no smoking campaign aligns with the objective of reducing tobacco use, which is one of the leading health indicators of Healthy People 2020. This intervention directly targets a significant public health concern. Leading a water aerobics class, teaching cultural awareness, or providing glucometers, while beneficial in other contexts, do not specifically address the leading health indicators outlined by Healthy People 2020.

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