at 1200 the practical nurse learns that a clients 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given the next scheduled dose is at 2100 which action should
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. What is the most effective method to prevent medication errors during administration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a bar-code medication administration system is the best method to prevent medication errors during administration. This system verifies medication details electronically, ensuring that the correct medication is given to the right patient. Relying on memory for medication dosages (choice A) is not recommended as it can lead to errors. Administering medications quickly (choice C) may increase the risk of mistakes due to haste. Allowing another individual (choice D) to administer medications does not address the root cause of preventing errors during administration.

3. Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis (TB)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne precautions. Tuberculosis (TB) is transmitted via airborne particles, thus requiring airborne precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using an N95 respirator to filter out small infectious particles. Droplet precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through large respiratory droplets. Contact precautions (Choice B) are for direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Standard precautions (Choice D) are used for all patients to prevent the spread of infection through blood, bodily fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes.

4. When caring for a client with colostomy, which topical skin preparation should the PN apply around the stoma?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Stomadhesive.' Stomadhesive is a protective barrier used around the stoma to prevent skin irritation and to secure the colostomy bag. This preparation helps to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications such as skin breakdown. Antiseptic cream (Choice A) is not typically used around the stoma as it can irritate the skin. Petroleum jelly (Choice B) is also not recommended as it can interfere with the adhesive properties of the colostomy appliance. Cornstarch (Choice C) is not suitable for application around the stoma as it can promote moisture and lead to skin irritation.

5. While providing oral care for a client who is unconscious, the nurse positions the client laterally and uses a basin to collect secretions. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using oral swabs with normal saline is the best intervention in this scenario as it effectively cleans the oral cavity without causing irritation or dryness, which is crucial for an unconscious client. Swabbing the oral cavity with a washcloth may not provide thorough cleaning, and it can potentially cause irritation. Providing a Yankauer tip for oral suction is not necessary unless there are excessive secretions that need to be suctioned. Supporting the head with a small pillow, although important for comfort, is not directly related to oral care in an unconscious client.

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