Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. Which of the following is the best method for confirming nasogastric tube placement?

• A. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air
• B. Checking the pH of the aspirate
• C. Observing the patient’s response during feeding
• D. Measuring the external length of the tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the pH of the aspirate is the most reliable method to confirm nasogastric tube placement as it provides direct evidence of the tube's location in the stomach. When the pH is acidic (pH < 5), it indicates that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Auscultating over the stomach while injecting air may not always be accurate, as the sound can be misleading due to various factors. Observing the patient’s response during feeding is not a definitive method for confirming tube placement, as it can be influenced by other factors. Measuring the external length of the tube does not ensure correct placement within the GI tract and can be affected by external factors like patient anatomy.

3. Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?

• A. Oral feeding of a two-year-old child after application of a hip spica cast
• B. Assessment of the placement and patency of a NG tube
• C. Participation in staff rounds to record notes regarding client goals
• D. Evaluation of a client's incisional pain following narcotic administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.

4. What should the nurse do to complete a focused assessment for a female client with inflamed and painful hemorrhoids?

• A. Determine if the client uses any over-the-counter preparations for hemorrhoids
• B. Place the client in a standing position, leaning over the exam bed for inspection
• C. Position the client in the left lateral position to inspect the perineal area for fissures or sacs
• D. Ask the client how long she has experienced discomfort related to hemorrhoids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Asking the client about the duration of discomfort related to hemorrhoids is the best intervention to implement for a focused assessment. This information provides important context for assessing the severity and chronicity of the condition, which is crucial for developing an appropriate care plan. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need to gather information about the duration of symptoms, which is essential for understanding the client's condition.

5. Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?

• A. Singed nasal hairs
• B. Conjunctivitis
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Clear sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.

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