Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?

• A. Using the Z-track method
• B. Using an air bubble to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue
• C. Not massaging the injection site
• D. Using the deltoid muscle for administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.

3. During a blood transfusion, which sign or symptom should prompt the healthcare provider to immediately stop the transfusion?

• A. Slight increase in blood pressure
• B. Elevated temperature and chills
• C. Mild nausea
• D. Slight headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Elevated temperature and chills. These symptoms are indicative of a transfusion reaction, which can be severe and life-threatening. It is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and notify the healthcare provider for further assessment and management. Elevated temperature and chills are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a possible febrile non-hemolytic reaction. Choice A, a slight increase in blood pressure, is not typically a reason to stop a transfusion unless it is a significant sudden increase. Mild nausea (Choice C) and a slight headache (Choice D) are common side effects of blood transfusions and are not primary indicators of a transfusion reaction that require immediate cessation of the transfusion.

4. A client reports being able to swallow only small bites of solid food and liquids for the last 3 months. The PN should assess the client for what additional information?

• A. Past traumatic injury to the neck
• B. Daily consumption of hot beverages
• C. History of alcohol or tobacco use
• D. Daily dietary intake of roughage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: History of alcohol or tobacco use. A history of alcohol or tobacco use is significant as both are risk factors for esophageal cancer or other esophageal disorders that could cause difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). This information helps in evaluating the underlying cause of the symptom. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. While a past traumatic injury to the neck could potentially cause swallowing difficulties, given the chronic nature of the symptom in this case, it is more important to focus on potential risk factors associated with esophageal disorders like alcohol and tobacco use. Daily consumption of hot beverages and daily dietary intake of roughage are less likely to be directly related to the client's current swallowing issue.

5. A nurse is caring for a 60-year-old man who is scheduled to have coronary bypass surgery in the morning. He tells the nurse that he is afraid that he will die and he is scared of the surgery. What is the best reply for this nurse to give him?

• A. There is no reason to be scared. My father had this surgery, and now he’s playing tennis with his friends almost every day.
• B. I would be scared too. It’s a natural thing to feel. Don’t worry. Everything will be alright.
• C. You’re scared?
• D. The doctor has performed hundreds of successful bypass surgeries. I have a lot of faith in him.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best reply for the nurse to give the patient is option C: 'You’re scared?' This response reflects empathy and understanding, acknowledging the patient's feelings of fear. By directly addressing the patient's emotions, the nurse encourages further expression of concerns, which is crucial in providing emotional support. Choices A and D may come off as dismissive of the patient's feelings by downplaying his fear or shifting the focus to others' experiences. Choice B, although acknowledging the patient's fear, does not actively engage with the patient's emotions or encourage further discussion.

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