Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. The nurse is assisting with the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. Although the client has been able to easily answer questions, when asked about sexual activity, she looks away. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Omit the section of the assessment form
• B. Ask her if she would like an interpreter to help her understand the question
• C. Reword the question to make it more culturally sensitive
• D. Observe the client's response when asked a different question

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing the client's response to another question is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse can assess whether the client's discomfort is due to cultural sensitivity or a misunderstanding. This approach allows the nurse to proceed with sensitivity and respect, ensuring effective communication. Option A is incorrect because omitting the section of the assessment form may result in missing crucial information relevant to the client's condition. Option B jumps to assumptions about a language barrier without confirming it first. Option C focuses on rewording the question without addressing the underlying issue causing the client's discomfort, which may not necessarily be due to a lack of understanding.

3. A client presents to the office with complaints of swelling in the legs, chills, and shortness of breath. During auscultation of the chest, a heart murmur is heard. The client's blood culture reveals a microorganism in the blood. When a microorganism is found in the blood, this condition is called

• A. Bacteremia
• B. Sepsis
• C. Septicemia
• D. Parasitic infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a microorganism is found in the blood, this condition is called bacteremia, which refers to the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, as indicated by a positive blood culture. If not appropriately treated, bacteremia can progress to septicemia, also known as sepsis. Sepsis is a severe and life-threatening response to an infection, characterized by systemic inflammation and organ dysfunction. Parasitic infections involve pathogens other than bacteria and are not directly related to the scenario described.

4. The nurse is teaching a pregnant client how to distinguish prelabor contractions from true labor contractions. Which statement about prelabor contractions is accurate?

• A. They are irregular
• B. They are usually felt in the abdomen
• C. They start in the back and radiate to the abdomen
• D. They become more intense during walking

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement about prelabor contractions (Braxton Hicks contractions) is that they are usually felt in the abdomen. They are irregular in nature and do not intensify with movement. Choice A is incorrect because prelabor contractions are irregular, not regular. Choice C is incorrect as prelabor contractions do not start in the back and radiate to the abdomen. Choice D is incorrect as prelabor contractions do not become more intense during walking.

5. Which of the following dietary modifications should be recommended for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. High protein, low sodium
• B. Low protein, high potassium
• C. Low sodium, low potassium
• D. High calcium, low phosphorus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A low sodium, low potassium diet is often recommended for patients with CKD to manage fluid balance and prevent electrolyte imbalances that the kidneys can no longer regulate effectively. High protein diets, as mentioned in choice A, can put extra strain on the kidneys, making it an incorrect choice. Choice B, which suggests a low protein, high potassium diet, is also incorrect because high potassium levels can be harmful to individuals with CKD. Choice D, advocating for a high calcium, low phosphorus diet, is not the typical dietary recommendation for CKD patients, even though managing calcium and phosphorus levels is important in their diet.

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