Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis?

• A. Placing the patient in a supine position
• B. Administering a beta-blocker intravenously
• C. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
• D. Applying a cold compress to the forehead

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a beta-blocker intravenously is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis. Beta-blockers help quickly reduce blood pressure and prevent complications such as stroke or heart attack. Placing the patient in a supine position can worsen the condition by reducing venous return and increasing the workload of the heart. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids is not recommended as it can exacerbate hypertension by increasing fluid volume. Applying a cold compress to the forehead does not address the underlying cause of the hypertensive crisis and is unlikely to provide significant benefit.

3. A client who had an abdominal hysterectomy is experiencing minimal urine output despite adequate fluid intake. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bladder for distension.
• B. The IV catheter insertion site.
• C. The patency of the urinary catheter.
• D. The client's vital signs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the patency of the urinary catheter is crucial in this situation. A blocked catheter could be a common cause of decreased urine output following surgery. While checking the IV catheter insertion site (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority in this case. Examining the client's bladder for distension (Choice A) is relevant, but assessing the patency of the catheter takes precedence in resolving the issue of decreased urine output. Monitoring vital signs (Choice D) is a routine nursing task but not the priority when dealing with decreased urine output post-surgery.

4. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?

• A. Lyme disease
• B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
• C. Syphilis
• D. Toxoplasmosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.

5. Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?

• A. Singed nasal hairs
• B. Conjunctivitis
• C. Hoarseness
• D. Clear sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.

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