Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• B. To promote wound healing
• C. To reduce postoperative pain
• D. To maintain body temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

3. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?

• A. Loosen the fistula dressing
• B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
• C. Document that the fistula is intact
• D. Apply gentle pressure over the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.

4. When teaching a patient about the side effects of a new medication, which teaching method is most effective?

• A. Providing a written pamphlet
• B. Giving verbal instructions only
• C. Demonstrating how to take the medication
• D. Using a combination of verbal, written, and demonstration methods

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective teaching method when educating a patient about the side effects of a new medication is to use a combination of verbal, written, and demonstration methods. This comprehensive approach ensures that the patient receives information through multiple channels, catering to different learning styles. Verbal instructions allow for direct communication, written materials provide a reference for the patient to review later, and demonstrations offer a visual aid that can enhance understanding. Providing a combination of these methods increases the likelihood of the patient retaining and comprehending the information effectively. Choices A, B, and C are less effective as they do not encompass the benefits of utilizing multiple teaching modalities.

5. After spinal fusion surgery, a client reports numbness and tingling in the legs. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities.
• B. Reposition the client to relieve pressure on the spine.
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After spinal fusion surgery, numbness and tingling in the legs may indicate nerve compression or damage. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client’s neurovascular status in the lower extremities. This assessment will help determine the cause and severity of the symptoms, guiding further interventions. Repositioning the client may be necessary for comfort, but assessing neurovascular status is the initial step. Administering pain medication should only follow the assessment to address any discomfort. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately is not the first action unless there are emergent signs requiring urgent intervention.

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