at 1200 the practical nurse learns that a clients 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given the next scheduled dose is at 2100 which action should
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. The PN administered darbepoetin alfa to a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which serum laboratory value should the PN monitor to assess the effectiveness of this drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Darbepoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with CKD. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and to adjust the dosage to avoid complications such as hypertension or thrombosis. Monitoring calcium (Choice A), phosphorus (Choice B), or white blood cell count (Choice D) is not directly related to the effectiveness of darbepoetin alfa in treating anemia associated with CKD.

3. Which statement by a mature adult client with advanced prostate cancer best indicates that he has reached a level of acceptance of his prognosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because finding support in faith and family is a common way for individuals to cope with serious illnesses and come to terms with their prognosis. This statement indicates that the client has found a source of strength and comfort to deal with their situation. Choice A reflects defiance rather than acceptance. Choice C suggests denial or disbelief in the diagnosis. Choice D shows factual knowledge about the disease but does not necessarily indicate acceptance of the prognosis.

4. What is the most common sign of a localized infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Redness, warmth, and swelling at the site of infection. These signs are typical indications of a localized infection, representing inflammation and the body's immune response to the pathogen. Fever (choice A) is a systemic response and not specific to a localized infection. Elevated white blood cell count (choice B) can be seen in both localized and systemic infections. Chills and shivering (choice D) are more related to the body's response to fever and not specifically indicative of a localized infection.

5. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.

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