at 1200 the practical nurse learns that a clients 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given the next scheduled dose is at 2100 which action should
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for managing delirium in an elderly patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging family presence is the most appropriate intervention for managing delirium in elderly patients. This intervention provides orientation, reassurance, and comfort, which can help reduce confusion and anxiety, thus aiding in managing delirium. Keeping the room brightly lit (Choice A) may worsen delirium as it can disrupt the patient's sleep-wake cycle. Administering sedatives (Choice B) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of worsening delirium. Restricting fluids (Choice D) is not a recommended intervention for managing delirium, as hydration is important for overall patient well-being.

3. Which task could the nurse safely delegate to the UAP?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a stable child is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP. This task does not require nursing assessment or clinical judgment. Choice B involves assessment, which requires the nurse's clinical judgment. Choice C involves recording client goals during staff rounds, which may require interpretation and understanding of the goals set. Choice D involves evaluating a client's pain following medication administration, which requires assessment and clinical judgment by a nurse.

4. What is a priority when providing care for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a patient with a newly inserted tracheostomy, the priority is to monitor for signs of infection and ensure a patent airway. This is crucial to prevent complications such as airway obstruction or infection. While keeping the tracheostomy tube clean and dry is important for overall care, it is not the highest priority when compared to ensuring a patent airway. Providing regular oral hygiene is essential for the patient's comfort but takes a secondary role to maintaining airway patency. Encouraging the patient to cough and deep breathe may be beneficial but is not as critical as monitoring for infection and keeping the airway clear.

5. The UAP reports to the nurse that a client refused to bathe for the third consecutive day. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client why the bath was refused. Understanding the client's reason for refusal is crucial in identifying and addressing any underlying concerns or issues that may be contributing to the refusal. This approach promotes open communication, client-centered care, and helps in developing a plan of care that is tailored to the client's needs and preferences. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the root cause of the refusal and may not effectively resolve the situation.

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