Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. A client who had a right total shoulder replacement is being prepared for discharge. What should the nurse emphasize to the client to prevent complications?

• A. Avoid lifting objects with the right arm until cleared by the surgeon.
• B. Perform shoulder exercises to regain strength.
• C. Use a sling at all times, even during sleep.
• D. Apply heat to the shoulder to reduce stiffness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid lifting objects with the right arm until cleared by the surgeon. After a total shoulder replacement, it is essential to protect the new joint to prevent dislocation or injury. Lifting heavy objects prematurely can lead to complications. While performing shoulder exercises is important for strength, they should be done as per the healthcare provider's instructions to avoid strain on the new joint. Using a sling at all times, as in choice C, is not necessary once the client has regained enough strength and mobility. Applying heat, as in choice D, may not be recommended post-surgery; cold therapy is often preferred to reduce swelling and pain.

3. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

4. Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin B12
• C. Vitamin C
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.

5. According to the principle of asepsis, which situation should the PN consider to be sterile?

• A. A one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room
• B. A sterile glove that the PN thinks might have touched hair
• C. A wrapped, unopened sterile 4x4 gauze pad placed on a damp table top
• D. An open sterile Foley catheter kit set up on a table at the PN's waist level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: According to the principle of asepsis, the one-inch border around the edges of a sterile field set up in the operating room is considered non-sterile, while the central area remains sterile. Therefore, the PN should consider the situation described in choice A to be sterile. Choice B is incorrect because a glove that may have touched hair is contaminated. Choice C is incorrect as a sterile item placed on a damp surface is considered contaminated. Choice D is incorrect as a sterile kit set up at the PN's waist level is prone to contamination.

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