Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. A client post-thyroidectomy is being monitored for signs of hypocalcemia. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse be most concerned about?

• A. Tingling in the hands and around the mouth.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the hands and around the mouth. This symptom is a classic sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands were inadvertently damaged during surgery. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are not specific to hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice C) is not a typical symptom of hypocalcemia. Bradycardia (Choice D) is more commonly associated with hypothyroidism rather than hypocalcemia.

3. A client who is receiving chemotherapy has developed stomatitis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is assisting with the care of this client?

• A. Keep the room environment free of unpleasant odors
• B. Gather supplies for protective environmental precautions
• C. Assist the client with feeding at meal times
• D. Provide gentle and meticulous mouth care

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing gentle and meticulous mouth care is critical for a client with stomatitis as it helps prevent further irritation and infection of the mucous membranes. Keeping the room environment free of unpleasant odors (Choice A) is important for the client's comfort but not directly related to managing stomatitis. Gathering supplies for protective environmental precautions (Choice B) is not relevant to addressing stomatitis. Assisting the client with feeding at meal times (Choice C) is important for overall care but does not specifically target the care needed for stomatitis.

4. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?

• A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
• B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
• C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
• D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.

5. While performing an inspection of a client's fingernails, the PN observes a suspected abnormality of the nail's shape and character. Which finding should the PN document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.

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