Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?

• A. Swollen and discolored penile shaft
• B. Prepuce extends over the head of the penis
• C. Leaking urine around the top of the catheter
• D. Moist and excoriated perineal skin folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.

3. When teaching a patient about the side effects of a new medication, which teaching method is most effective?

• A. Providing a written pamphlet
• B. Giving verbal instructions only
• C. Demonstrating how to take the medication
• D. Using a combination of verbal, written, and demonstration methods

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective teaching method when educating a patient about the side effects of a new medication is to use a combination of verbal, written, and demonstration methods. This comprehensive approach ensures that the patient receives information through multiple channels, catering to different learning styles. Verbal instructions allow for direct communication, written materials provide a reference for the patient to review later, and demonstrations offer a visual aid that can enhance understanding. Providing a combination of these methods increases the likelihood of the patient retaining and comprehending the information effectively. Choices A, B, and C are less effective as they do not encompass the benefits of utilizing multiple teaching modalities.

4. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication.
• B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

5. What should the nurse do to complete a focused assessment for a female client with inflamed and painful hemorrhoids?

• A. Determine if the client uses any over-the-counter preparations for hemorrhoids
• B. Place the client in a standing position, leaning over the exam bed for inspection
• C. Position the client in the left lateral position to inspect the perineal area for fissures or sacs
• D. Ask the client how long she has experienced discomfort related to hemorrhoids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Asking the client about the duration of discomfort related to hemorrhoids is the best intervention to implement for a focused assessment. This information provides important context for assessing the severity and chronicity of the condition, which is crucial for developing an appropriate care plan. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need to gather information about the duration of symptoms, which is essential for understanding the client's condition.

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