at 1200 the practical nurse learns that a clients 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given the next scheduled dose is at 2100 which action should
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. Which of the following components of nutrition has a primary function of helping with tissue growth and repair?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protein is the correct answer as it is essential for tissue growth and repair. Proteins are composed of amino acids, the building blocks of body tissues. While vitamins D and E have important roles in the body, they are not primarily responsible for tissue growth and repair. Fats are crucial for various bodily functions, like providing energy, but they are not the primary component involved in tissue growth and repair.

3. In what order should the PN implement these steps to provide wound care? (Place in correct order.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D - All of the Above.' The PN should first don procedure gloves to maintain aseptic technique, then remove the dressing to assess the wound, and finally apply prescribed medications to the wound. This sequence ensures that non-sterile tasks like donning gloves are done before sterile tasks like applying medications, reducing the risk of wound contamination. Choices A, B, and C are all essential steps in providing effective wound care.

4. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

5. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

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