at 1200 the practical nurse learns that a clients 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given the next scheduled dose is at 2100 which action should
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HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.

3. Which type of isolation is required for a patient with measles?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Airborne isolation. Measles is highly contagious and can be transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne isolation is necessary to prevent its spread. Choice A, Contact isolation, is incorrect because measles is not primarily transmitted through direct contact. Choice C, Droplet isolation, is also incorrect as measles is not transmitted through large droplets but through smaller airborne particles. Choice D, Reverse isolation, is used to protect a patient from outside infections, not to prevent the spread of a contagious disease like measles.

4. A client reports being able to swallow only small bites of solid food and liquids for the last 3 months. The PN should assess the client for what additional information?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: History of alcohol or tobacco use. A history of alcohol or tobacco use is significant as both are risk factors for esophageal cancer or other esophageal disorders that could cause difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). This information helps in evaluating the underlying cause of the symptom. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. While a past traumatic injury to the neck could potentially cause swallowing difficulties, given the chronic nature of the symptom in this case, it is more important to focus on potential risk factors associated with esophageal disorders like alcohol and tobacco use. Daily consumption of hot beverages and daily dietary intake of roughage are less likely to be directly related to the client's current swallowing issue.

5. Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.

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