Nursing Elites

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. While ambulating in the hallway following an appendectomy yesterday, a client complains of chest tightness and shortness of breath. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Assist the client back to the room
• C. Have the client sit down in the hall
• D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having the client sit down in the hallway is the first action the nurse should implement. This is crucial to prevent further strain on the heart and to provide a safer environment for assessment and potential emergency intervention. Administering sublingual nitroglycerin (Choice A) may be appropriate later but should not precede ensuring the client's immediate safety. Assisting the client back to the room (Choice B) may not be advisable if the client is experiencing chest tightness and shortness of breath. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice D) is important but would not be the initial action to address the client's immediate symptoms.

3. What intervention should the PN implement when taking the rectal temperature of an adult client?

• A. Lubricate the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel.
• B. Gently insert the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum.
• C. Hold the thermometer in place the entire time while taking the temperature.
• D. Place the client in the left lateral position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When taking a rectal temperature, it is essential to hold the thermometer in place the entire time to ensure safety, accuracy, and prevent the thermometer from slipping out. Choice A, lubricating the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel, is important for comfort and ease of insertion. Choice B, gently inserting the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum, is more accurate for adults than inserting it 3 inches. Choice D, placing the client in the left lateral position, is not necessary for a rectal temperature measurement.

4. After a hip replacement surgery, a client is instructed to use an abduction pillow while in bed. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To reduce the risk of blood clots.
• B. To prevent hip dislocation.
• C. To improve circulation in the legs.
• D. To alleviate pain and discomfort.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of using an abduction pillow after hip replacement surgery is to prevent hip dislocation. The abduction pillow keeps the legs separated, which reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing excessive internal rotation and adduction of the hip joint. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the main goal of using the abduction pillow is to maintain proper positioning and stability of the hip joint to prevent dislocation, rather than addressing blood clots, circulation, or pain relief.

5. The UAP is caring for a male resident of a long-term care facility who has an external urinary catheter. Which finding should the PN instruct the UAP to report immediately?

• A. Swollen and discolored penile shaft
• B. Prepuce extends over the head of the penis
• C. Leaking urine around the top of the catheter
• D. Moist and excoriated perineal skin folds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Swollen and discolored penile shaft. Swelling and discoloration of the penile shaft may indicate an infection or other complications requiring immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows for timely intervention to prevent further harm to the client. Choice B is incorrect because the prepuce extending over the head of the penis is not an urgent issue. Choice C, leaking urine around the catheter, may require intervention but is not as urgent as the swelling and discoloration described in choice A. Choice D, moist and excoriated perineal skin folds, also needs attention but is not as concerning as the potential complications indicated by the findings in choice A.

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