HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
- A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
- B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
- C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
- D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
2. What is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager?
- A. Direct patient care
- B. Financial oversight
- C. Ignoring staff concerns
- D. Minimizing staff training
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Financial oversight is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager. Healthcare managers are responsible for managing the financial aspects of healthcare facilities, including budgeting, financial planning, and ensuring financial sustainability. Direct patient care (choice A) is typically the responsibility of healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, not managers. Ignoring staff concerns (choice C) is counterproductive and goes against effective management practices. Minimizing staff training (choice D) is also not a responsibility of a healthcare manager; on the contrary, they should ensure adequate training and development opportunities for their staff to improve patient care and overall performance.
3. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?
- A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
- B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
- C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
- D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.
4. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?
- A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
- B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
- C. Check for jugular vein distention.
- D. Measure the client's urine output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.
5. An 82-year-old client is prescribed eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. What assessment is needed before the nurse begins teaching proper administration of the medication?
- A. Determine the client's manual dexterity
- B. The client’s manual dexterity
- C. Proximity to health care services
- D. Ability to use visual assistive devices
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the client’s manual dexterity is crucial before teaching the administration of eye drops. Manual dexterity is essential for the proper instillation of eye drops. If the client has limited manual dexterity, alternative methods of administration may be necessary. The other choices, such as determining third-party payment plan, proximity to health care services, and ability to use visual assistive devices, are not directly related to the immediate need for assessing manual dexterity for the proper administration of eye drops.