at 1200 the practical nurse learns that a clients 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given the next scheduled dose is at 2100 which action should
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2023

1. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

2. To accommodate a patient who is an Orthodox Jew, you would assure that her diet does not include which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Orthodox Jewish dietary laws prohibit mixing meat and dairy in the same meal, so to accommodate an Orthodox Jew, you should ensure that their diet does not include any combination of meat and milk at the same meal. Choices B, C, and D are not prohibited in a kosher diet. Fish with scales, including salmon, are typically kosher, and grape juice is also permissible under kosher guidelines if certified. Therefore, options B, C, and D are acceptable in an Orthodox Jewish diet, while option A contradicts their dietary laws.

3. Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.

4. Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.

5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.

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