HESI LPN
Nutrition Final Exam Quizlet
1. What does a positive correlation between two variables indicate?
- A. One variable causes the other.
- B. Both variables move in the same direction.
- C. Both variables move in opposite directions.
- D. There is no relationship between the variables.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A positive correlation between two variables indicates that they move in the same direction. This means that as one variable increases (or decreases), the other variable also increases (or decreases). Choice A is incorrect because correlation does not imply causation; it only shows a relationship between variables. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a negative correlation where variables move in opposite directions. Choice D is incorrect as a positive correlation implies a relationship between the variables.
2. What is the function of the epiglottis during swallowing?
- A. Prevents food from entering the trachea
- B. Aids in food propulsion
- C. Enhances taste sensation
- D. Lubricates the esophagus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The epiglottis is a flap of tissue that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquids from entering the airway. Choice A is correct because the primary function of the epiglottis is to act as a lid over the trachea, ensuring that food goes down the esophagus and not into the windpipe. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not describe the specific role of the epiglottis during swallowing.
3. Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?
- A. Every 2 months
- B. Every 4 months
- C. Every 6 months
- D. Every 8 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of heart failure.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of bladder cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of heart failure when taking pioglitazone. Pioglitazone is known to potentially exacerbate heart failure, so it is crucial for clients to monitor and report any symptoms of heart failure promptly to their healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices B and C are important but not specific to pioglitazone use. Choice D is incorrect as bladder cancer is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
5. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Severe headache
- D. Flushed skin below the level of injury
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.