HESI LPN
Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank
1. A patient is admitted to the emergency department with hypovolemia. Which IV solution should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. 3% sodium chloride
- B. 10% dextrose in water
- C. 0.45% sodium chloride
- D. Lactated Ringer's solution
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lactated Ringer's solution is the most suitable IV solution for a patient with hypovolemia. It is a balanced crystalloid solution containing electrolytes such as sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate, which closely resemble the body's natural fluids. This solution helps to restore intravascular volume and electrolyte balance in hypovolemic patients. Choice A, 3% sodium chloride, is a hypertonic solution used for specific situations like severe hyponatremia or cerebral edema, not typically for hypovolemia. Choice B, 10% dextrose in water, is a hypertonic solution primarily used for providing calories and free water, not for volume expansion. Choice C, 0.45% sodium chloride, is a hypotonic solution used for conditions like hypernatremia or as maintenance fluid, not for hypovolemia.
2. What does the term 'health disparity' refer to?
- A. Equal access to healthcare for all individuals
- B. Differences in health outcomes between different population groups
- C. High-quality healthcare for everyone
- D. Providing the same treatments to everyone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. 'Health disparity' refers to differences in health outcomes between different population groups. This term highlights variations in health status or in the distribution of health determinants between different population groups. Choice A is incorrect as health disparity is about health outcomes, not just access to healthcare. Choice C is too broad and not specific to the concept of health disparity. Choice D is incorrect as health disparity recognizes that different populations may need tailored or different treatments based on their specific health needs.
3. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
- A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
- B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
- C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
- D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.
4. The nurse observes a client with new-onset tachycardia. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check for the client's temperature
- B. Administer prescribed beta-blockers
- C. Assess for any chest pain or discomfort
- D. Monitor the client's blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client presents with new-onset tachycardia, the first action the nurse should take is to assess for any associated symptoms like chest pain or discomfort. This is important to differentiate the potential causes of tachycardia and guide appropriate interventions. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) may be relevant in certain situations but is not the priority when tachycardia is observed. Administering prescribed beta-blockers (Choice B) should only be done after a comprehensive assessment and healthcare provider's orders. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (Choice D) is important, but assessing for chest pain or discomfort takes precedence in this scenario to rule out cardiac causes of tachycardia.
5. The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?
- A. The fasting blood sugar was 120 mg/dL this morning
- B. Urine ketones have been negative for the past 6 months
- C. The hemoglobin A1C was 6.5% last week
- D. No diabetic ketoacidosis has occurred in 6 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.