Nursing Elites

1. Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?

• A. Lente
• B. Lispro
• C. Ultralente
• D. Humulin N

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lispro insulin has the most rapid onset of action among the options provided. It is a rapid-acting insulin analog that is designed to control postprandial hyperglycemia effectively. Lente insulin (Choice A) and Ultralente insulin (Choice C) are intermediate-acting insulins, which have a slower onset of action compared to Lispro. Humulin N (Choice D) is a neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin, which is an intermediate-acting insulin, not rapid-acting like Lispro. Therefore, the correct choice is Lispro.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's laboratory report and notes that the serum calcium level is 4.0 mg/dL. The healthcare professional understands that which condition most likely caused this serum calcium level?

• A. Prolonged bed rest
• B. Renal insufficiency
• C. Hyperparathyroidism
• D. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolonged bed rest can lead to hypocalcemia due to decreased mobility and bone resorption. In this scenario, the low serum calcium level of 4.0 mg/dL is likely a result of decreased bone activity and calcium release due to prolonged bed rest. Renal insufficiency would more likely lead to hypercalcemia due to impaired excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Hyperparathyroidism is characterized by increased calcium levels as a result of excess parathyroid hormone. Excessive ingestion of vitamin D can cause hypercalcemia by increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.

3. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

4. A nurse manager observes an assistive personnel (AP) incorrectly transferring a client to the bedside commode. Which of the following should the nurse take first?

• A. Refer the AP to the facility procedure manual
• B. Demonstrate the proper client transfer technique for the AP
• C. Instruct the AP to request assistance when unsure about a task
• D. Help the AP assist the client with the transfer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client by immediately intervening to help the AP with the transfer. This hands-on assistance can prevent any potential harm to the client. Referring the AP to the facility procedure manual (Choice A) might take time and delay the necessary immediate action. Demonstrating the proper technique (Choice B) can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Instructing the AP to request assistance (Choice C) is not the most urgent step when a client's safety is at risk.

5. Your client has a doctor's order that reads 'advance diet as tolerated'. This client has returned from the recovery room after an appendectomy and he states, 'I am hungry'. What would you offer this client to consume?

• A. Cheese and crackers
• B. Apple sauce
• C. Chicken broth
• D. A peanut butter sandwich

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken broth is a suitable option for a post-appendectomy patient beginning to tolerate oral intake. It is clear liquid and easily digestible, making it a gentle choice for someone who has just returned from surgery. Cheese and crackers, apple sauce, and a peanut butter sandwich are not ideal options for an individual who needs to start with a light and easily digestible diet.

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