Nursing Elites

1. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
• B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
• C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
• D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.

2. A nurse at a long-term care facility is planning a fall prevention program for the residents. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply vest restraints to residents who are confused
• B. Keep all four side rails up on beds at night
• C. Accompany residents over 85 years of age during ambulation
• D. Implement rounds every 2 hours during the day to offer toileting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement rounds every 2 hours during the day to offer toileting. This intervention helps prevent falls by addressing the common cause of unassisted mobility, which is the need to use the bathroom. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be the first choice for fall prevention due to the risk of injury and loss of independence. Choice B is incorrect because all side rails up can lead to entrapment and should only be used based on individualized assessments. Choice C may not be feasible for all residents over 85 years old and does not directly address the risk of falls.

3. The healthcare provider provides instructions to a client with a low magnesium level about the foods that are high in magnesium and tells the client to consume which foods? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Peas
• B. Oranges
• C. Apples
• D. Peanut butter

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oranges are not high in magnesium. The other choices, such as peas, are good sources of magnesium. Peas, along with cauliflower and canned white tuna, are foods rich in magnesium. Oranges, although healthy, are not known for their high magnesium content.

4. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

• A. Fine motor coordination: The use of the fingers
• B. Stereognosis: Equal hearing in both ears
• C. Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin
• D. Gross motor function: The use of the lower limbs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

5. Which of the following is an example of a chronic disease?

• A. Common cold
• B. Influenza
• C. Diabetes
• D. Food poisoning

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diabetes is classified as a chronic disease because it is a long-term condition that requires ongoing management. Choices A, B, and D, which are the common cold, influenza, and food poisoning, are acute illnesses that typically resolve on their own without long-lasting implications.

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