HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. A client is admitted with pyelonephritis, and cultures reveal an Escherichia coli infection. The client is allergic to penicillins, and the healthcare provider prescribed vancomycin IV. The nurse should plan to carefully monitor the client for which finding during IV administration?
- A. Tissue sloughing upon extravasation
- B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate
- C. Tinnitus and vertigo
- D. Erythema of the face, neck, and chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tinnitus and vertigo. Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, leading to symptoms like tinnitus and vertigo. Monitoring for these adverse effects is crucial to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tissue sloughing, elevated blood pressure and heart rate, and erythema of the face, neck, and chest are not typically associated with vancomycin administration. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for signs of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity such as tinnitus and vertigo.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the nurse perform when suctioning the tracheostomy tube?
- A. Increase wall suction while removing the suction catheter
- B. Instill 10 ml of sterile saline into the tracheostomy tube before applying continuous suction
- C. Suction the client’s oropharynx after tracheal suctioning
- D. Insert the suction catheter into the trachea, and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When suctioning a tracheostomy tube, it is essential to insert the suction catheter into the trachea and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter. This technique helps prevent damage to the trachea and reduces discomfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect because increasing wall suction with the removal of the suction catheter can cause trauma to the tracheal mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because instilling saline into the tracheostomy tube before suctioning is not recommended as it can lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect as oropharyngeal suctioning should be done before tracheal suctioning to prevent the risk of aspiration.
3. The nurse is obtaining the medical histories of new clients at a community-based primary care clinic. Which individual has the highest risk for experiencing elder abuse?
- A. A 69-year-old widowed female who lives alone and volunteers at a school
- B. A 95-year-old ambulatory male who resides in a nursing home in a small town
- C. A 78-year-old female on a fixed income who lives with her relatives
- D. An 81-year-old male with diabetes who lives with his wife of 52 years
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elder abuse risk is higher in individuals who live with relatives and are on a fixed income as these factors can contribute to vulnerability. Living with relatives may expose the individual to potential abusive situations within the family dynamics. Additionally, being on a fixed income may limit financial independence and increase dependency on others, potentially leading to financial abuse. The other options, such as living alone and volunteering, residing in a nursing home, or living with a long-term spouse, do not inherently pose the same level of risk factors for elder abuse as living with relatives on a fixed income.
4. A client with chronic alcoholism is admitted with a decreased serum magnesium level. Which snack option should the nurse recommend to this client?
- A. Cheddar cheese and crackers
- B. Carrot and celery sticks
- C. Beef bologna sausage slices
- D. Dry roasted almonds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Dry roasted almonds are the most suitable snack option for a client with chronic alcoholism and a decreased serum magnesium level because they are high in magnesium. Magnesium is essential in addressing the deficiency. Cheddar cheese and crackers (Choice A) do not contain as much magnesium as almonds. Carrot and celery sticks (Choice B) are healthy choices but do not provide a significant amount of magnesium. Beef bologna sausage slices (Choice C) are not a good choice as processed meats are not rich in magnesium.
5. After successful resuscitation, a client is given propranolol and transferred to the Intensive Coronary Care Unit (ICCU). On admission, magnesium sulfate 4 grams IV in 250 ml D5W at one gram/hour. Which assessment findings require immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Dark amber urine draining via an indwelling catheter at a rate of 40 ml per hour
- B. Serum calcium of 9.0 mg/dl (2.2 mmol/L SI) and magnesium of 1.8 mg/dl or Eq/L (0.74 mmol/L SI)
- C. Sinus rhythm at 72 beats/minute and peripheral blood pressure of 99/62
- D. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is indicative of possible magnesium toxicity, which can be a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. It is a critical finding that needs prompt attention to prevent further complications. The other options are not as urgent: A - dark amber urine may indicate dehydration but does not require immediate intervention, B - serum calcium and magnesium levels are within normal limits, C - sinus rhythm and blood pressure values are also within normal range and do not require immediate action.
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