Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

2. A healthcare professional is planning to obtain the vital signs of a 2-year-old child who is experiencing diarrhea and who might have a right ear infection. Which of the following routes should the healthcare professional use to obtain the temperature?

• A. Temporal
• B. Oral
• C. Rectal
• D. Axillary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 2-year-old child with diarrhea and a possible ear infection, rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate reflection of core body temperature. This method provides the most reliable reading, especially in young children, as it closely reflects the core body temperature. Oral temperature may not be accurate due to the child's recent diarrhea, which can affect oral readings. Axillary temperature may not be as accurate as rectal temperature in this case. Temporal temperature measurement, although non-invasive, may not provide the most accurate core body temperature reading, especially in a child with a potential ear infection.

3. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

• A. Spaghetti
• B. Watermelon
• C. Chicken
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Watermelon. Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to eat daily when taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon helps maintain adequate potassium levels. Spaghetti, chicken, and tomatoes are not as high in potassium and therefore not as beneficial in preventing hypokalemia related to furosemide use.

4. The LPN is preparing discharge instructions for a client who has begun to demonstrate signs of early Alzheimer's disease. The client lives alone. The client's adult children live nearby. According to the prescribed medication regimen, the client is to take medications six times throughout the day. What is the priority nursing intervention to assist the client with taking the medication?

• A. Contact the client's children and ask them to hire a private duty aide who will provide round-the-clock care.
• B. Develop a chart for the client, listing the times the medication should be taken.
• C. Contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen.
• D. Instruct the client and client's children to put medications in a weekly pill organizer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen. Simplifying the medication regimen is crucial for a client with early Alzheimer's disease to ensure they can manage their medications independently and safely. This intervention focuses on optimizing the client's ability to adhere to the prescribed medication schedule. Choices A and D involve external assistance and may not address the core issue of simplifying the regimen. Choice B, while helpful, does not directly address the need to simplify the regimen to enhance the client's medication management.

5. During auscultation of a client experiencing chest pain worsened by inspiration, a nurse hears a high-pitched scratching sound in both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope placed at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

• A. Pericardial friction rub
• B. Murmur
• C. S1 and S2
• D. Bruit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Pericardial friction rub.' A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratching sound heard in both systole and diastole, which is characteristic of pericardial inflammation. This sound is different from a murmur, which is a swooshing or blowing sound due to turbulent blood flow. S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, and a bruit is a whooshing sound caused by turbulent blood flow in an artery, not related to pericardial inflammation.

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