Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.

3. While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?

• A. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute, and describe the rhythm in the chart
• B. Measure the blood pressure
• C. Perform an ECG
• D. Recheck the heart rate after 5 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate nursing action when an irregularity in the heart rate is observed is to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute and describe the rhythm in the chart. This approach helps in obtaining an accurate assessment of the irregularities present. Measuring the blood pressure (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when an irregular heart rate is noted. Performing an ECG (Choice C) may be necessary but is a more advanced intervention that should follow the initial assessment. Rechecking the heart rate after 5 minutes (Choice D) may delay potential interventions for addressing the irregularity, making it less appropriate than the immediate assessment and documentation of the pulse rhythm.

4. Twenty minutes after starting a heat application, the client mentions that the heating pad no longer feels warm enough. What is the best response by the LPN/LVN?

• A. That indicates you have derived the maximum benefit, and the heat can be removed.
• B. Your blood vessels are dilating and removing the heat from the site.
• C. We will increase the temperature by 5 degrees when the pad no longer feels warm.
• D. The body's receptors adapt over time as they are exposed to heat.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct response. The body's receptors adapt to the heat over time, which can explain why the client no longer perceives the warmth from the heating pad. This phenomenon is known as thermal adaptation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the client not feeling the warmth does not necessarily mean they have derived the maximum benefit. Choice B incorrectly states that blood vessels dilating remove heat, which is not accurate. Choice C suggests increasing the temperature when the pad no longer feels warm, which could potentially lead to burns or discomfort for the client.

5. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

• A. Oil retention
• B. Soapsuds
• C. Saline
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

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