HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Reposition the client
- B. Document the client's IV intake in the medical record
- C. Request a new IV fluid prescription
- D. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.
2. A healthcare professional is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the healthcare professional:
- A. Refrigerates the collected specimen
- B. Collects the specimen in a sterile container
- C. Delays the collection of the specimen
- D. Uses a non-contaminated collection container
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Refrigeration can kill the ova and parasites present in the stool specimen, leading to inaccurate test results. Storing the specimen in a cold environment can disrupt the integrity of the parasites and ova, affecting the accuracy of the test. Collecting the specimen in a sterile container (Choice B) is the correct procedure to prevent external contamination. Delaying the collection of the specimen (Choice C) may affect the freshness of the sample but does not directly impact the test results. Using a non-contaminated collection container (Choice D) is essential to maintain the sample's integrity but does not relate to the risk of killing ova and parasites through refrigeration.
3. A client who has been experiencing frequent tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted by a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Wrap blankets around all four sides of the bed.
- B. Place the client in a padded room.
- C. Maintain the bed in the lowest position.
- D. Ensure the client has a soft mattress.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining the bed in the lowest position is crucial in reducing the risk of injury during tonic-clonic seizures. This action helps prevent falls and minimizes potential harm to the client. Wrapping blankets around all four sides of the bed (Choice A) may restrict movement during a seizure and increase the risk of injury. Placing the client in a padded room (Choice B) is not a practical approach in a healthcare setting and may not be feasible. Ensuring the client has a soft mattress (Choice D) alone does not address the safety concerns during seizures, unlike keeping the bed in the lowest position.
4. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?
- A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
- B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
- C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
- D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.
5. During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon’s office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?
- A. “I’d prefer my brother to make decisions, but I understand it must be my wife.”
- B. “I understand the surgery won’t proceed unless I fill out these forms.”
- C. “I plan to specify my wish to avoid being kept on a breathing machine.”
- D. “I will have my primary doctor review my plan before submitting it at the hospital.”
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.
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