a nurse receives report about a client who has 09 sodium chloride infusing iv at 125 mlhr when the nurse performs the initial assessment he notes that
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride IV at 125 mL/hr. The nurse notes that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. The first step in the nursing process is assessment. By checking the IV tubing for obstruction, the nurse can assess and potentially correct any issues affecting the flow rate. This action may help to ensure that the prescribed infusion rate is maintained. Repositioning the client is not the priority at this stage as the issue seems related to the IV tubing. Documenting the intake or requesting a new prescription are not immediate actions needed to address the current situation with the IV fluid flow.

2. A healthcare provider has inserted an indwelling catheter for a male patient. Where should the healthcare provider tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client's urethra at the penoscrotal junction?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is the correct placement to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction. Securing the catheter at the lower abdomen helps in reducing discomfort and minimizes the risk of trauma to the urethra. Placing the catheter on the upper thigh or penoscrotal junction can lead to tension on the catheter and potential discomfort for the patient. Taping the catheter to the mid-abdomen is not recommended as it does not provide the necessary support to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. If a client reports developing a rash when taking a specific medication, even if they are not aware of any allergies, it is crucial to document this information. This is necessary to prevent future allergic reactions. Identifying the exact medication that caused the rash is essential as the client could have an allergy to it. Providing this information allows healthcare providers to avoid prescribing the same medication again, which could potentially lead to more severe allergic reactions or life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the importance of documenting the specific medication that caused the adverse reaction or the potential risks of repeating the medication. Simply attributing the rash to common occurrences, adverse effects of medications in general, or assuming the rash is insignificant in the current context can overlook the critical aspect of identifying and avoiding allergens.

4. During the physical assessment of a client, which technique should a nurse use when performing a Romberg's test?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a Romberg's test, the nurse assesses the client's balance. Having the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together is the correct technique. This position helps the nurse observe for swaying or loss of balance, indicating alterations in balance. Choices A and B are incorrect as they are not part of Romberg's test and do not assess balance. Choice D is also incorrect as direct percussion over the kidneys is not associated with a Romberg's test.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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